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Question 1 of 65
1. Question
Which of the following vulnerabilities can be prevented by using proper input validation? (Select ANY that apply)
Correct
OBJ-5.3: Proper input validation can prevent cross-site scripting, SQL injection, directory traversal, and XML injections from occurring. When an application accepts string input, the input should be subjected to normalization or sanitization procedures before being accepted. Normalization means that a string is stripped of illegal characters or substrings and converted to the accepted character set. This can prevent SQL and XML injections from occurring. Input validation is also good at preventing cross-site scripting (XSS) in forms that accept user input. Directory traversals can be prevented by conducting input validation in file paths or URLs accepted from a user. This prevents a canonicalization attack from disguising the nature of the malicious input that could cause a directory traversal.
Incorrect
OBJ-5.3: Proper input validation can prevent cross-site scripting, SQL injection, directory traversal, and XML injections from occurring. When an application accepts string input, the input should be subjected to normalization or sanitization procedures before being accepted. Normalization means that a string is stripped of illegal characters or substrings and converted to the accepted character set. This can prevent SQL and XML injections from occurring. Input validation is also good at preventing cross-site scripting (XSS) in forms that accept user input. Directory traversals can be prevented by conducting input validation in file paths or URLs accepted from a user. This prevents a canonicalization attack from disguising the nature of the malicious input that could cause a directory traversal.
Unattempted
OBJ-5.3: Proper input validation can prevent cross-site scripting, SQL injection, directory traversal, and XML injections from occurring. When an application accepts string input, the input should be subjected to normalization or sanitization procedures before being accepted. Normalization means that a string is stripped of illegal characters or substrings and converted to the accepted character set. This can prevent SQL and XML injections from occurring. Input validation is also good at preventing cross-site scripting (XSS) in forms that accept user input. Directory traversals can be prevented by conducting input validation in file paths or URLs accepted from a user. This prevents a canonicalization attack from disguising the nature of the malicious input that could cause a directory traversal.
Question 2 of 65
2. Question
Which of the following tools is used to cross-compile code on a Kali Linux machine to run on a Windows client?
Correct
OBJ-4.2: MSFvenom is a combination of Msfpayload and Msfencode, putting both of these tools into a single Framework instance. This tool allows a Kali Linux user to cross-compile code as an executable for a Windows client or Android device. MSFvenom is part of the Metasploit framework.
Incorrect
OBJ-4.2: MSFvenom is a combination of Msfpayload and Msfencode, putting both of these tools into a single Framework instance. This tool allows a Kali Linux user to cross-compile code as an executable for a Windows client or Android device. MSFvenom is part of the Metasploit framework.
Unattempted
OBJ-4.2: MSFvenom is a combination of Msfpayload and Msfencode, putting both of these tools into a single Framework instance. This tool allows a Kali Linux user to cross-compile code as an executable for a Windows client or Android device. MSFvenom is part of the Metasploit framework.
Question 3 of 65
3. Question
Jason is conducting a penetration test against Skillcertpro Training’s Windows-based network. He wants to laterally move to another host and execute an exploit he previously trick a user into downloading to the C:\Windows\temp directory on the workstation with an IP of 192.168.1.50. He types the following into his terminal:
-=-=-=-=-=-=-
PS C:\Users\jason> $obj = [activator]::CreateInstance([type]::GetTypeFromProgID(“MMC20.Application”,”192. 168.1.50″))
PS C:\Users\jason> $obj.Document.ActiveView.ExecuteShellCommand(“C:\Windows\temp\exploit.exe”, $null,$null,”7″)
-=-=-=-=-=-=-
Based on these commands, what type of post-exploitation lateral movement did Jason utilize?
Correct
OBJ-3.7: Remote Procedure Call (RPC) enables inter-process communication between local and remote processes on Windows. Distributed Component Object Model (DCOM) enables the communication between software components over a network. DCOM applications use RPC as a transport mechanism for client requests. Flaws in DCOM can enable you to execute code on a remote system by assuming user privileges. For example, a DCOM application commonly used to initiate lateral movement is MMC20.Application. This enables users to execute Microsoft Management Console (MMC) snap-in operations on a Windows computer. The MMC20.application includes an ExecuteShellCommand() method that allows for a command’s remote execution using a remote computer’s shell. In this example, the first command told PowerShell on Jason’s machine to select the MMMC snap-in on the remote computer with the IP address of 192.168.1.50. The second command then started the exploit on the remote system with a null current working directory, null parameters passed to the exploit.exe command and started it with a window state of 7. Ultimately, this would launch the exploit.exe program on the remote machine using the local administrator account.
Incorrect
OBJ-3.7: Remote Procedure Call (RPC) enables inter-process communication between local and remote processes on Windows. Distributed Component Object Model (DCOM) enables the communication between software components over a network. DCOM applications use RPC as a transport mechanism for client requests. Flaws in DCOM can enable you to execute code on a remote system by assuming user privileges. For example, a DCOM application commonly used to initiate lateral movement is MMC20.Application. This enables users to execute Microsoft Management Console (MMC) snap-in operations on a Windows computer. The MMC20.application includes an ExecuteShellCommand() method that allows for a command’s remote execution using a remote computer’s shell. In this example, the first command told PowerShell on Jason’s machine to select the MMMC snap-in on the remote computer with the IP address of 192.168.1.50. The second command then started the exploit on the remote system with a null current working directory, null parameters passed to the exploit.exe command and started it with a window state of 7. Ultimately, this would launch the exploit.exe program on the remote machine using the local administrator account.
Unattempted
OBJ-3.7: Remote Procedure Call (RPC) enables inter-process communication between local and remote processes on Windows. Distributed Component Object Model (DCOM) enables the communication between software components over a network. DCOM applications use RPC as a transport mechanism for client requests. Flaws in DCOM can enable you to execute code on a remote system by assuming user privileges. For example, a DCOM application commonly used to initiate lateral movement is MMC20.Application. This enables users to execute Microsoft Management Console (MMC) snap-in operations on a Windows computer. The MMC20.application includes an ExecuteShellCommand() method that allows for a command’s remote execution using a remote computer’s shell. In this example, the first command told PowerShell on Jason’s machine to select the MMMC snap-in on the remote computer with the IP address of 192.168.1.50. The second command then started the exploit on the remote system with a null current working directory, null parameters passed to the exploit.exe command and started it with a window state of 7. Ultimately, this would launch the exploit.exe program on the remote machine using the local administrator account.
Question 4 of 65
4. Question
Which one of the following methods would provide the most current and accurate information about any vulnerabilities present in a system with a misconfigured operating system setting?
Correct
OBJ-2.2: An agent-based monitoring solution would be the best choice to meet these requirements. Agent-based monitoring provides more details of the configuration settings for a system and can provide an internal perspective. While vulnerability scans can give you a snapshot of a system’s status at a certain time, it will not remain current and accurate without continual rescanning.
Incorrect
OBJ-2.2: An agent-based monitoring solution would be the best choice to meet these requirements. Agent-based monitoring provides more details of the configuration settings for a system and can provide an internal perspective. While vulnerability scans can give you a snapshot of a system’s status at a certain time, it will not remain current and accurate without continual rescanning.
Unattempted
OBJ-2.2: An agent-based monitoring solution would be the best choice to meet these requirements. Agent-based monitoring provides more details of the configuration settings for a system and can provide an internal perspective. While vulnerability scans can give you a snapshot of a system’s status at a certain time, it will not remain current and accurate without continual rescanning.
Question 5 of 65
5. Question
What type of malicious application does not require user intervention or another application to act as a host to replicate?
Correct
OBJ-3.1: A worm is a self-replicating type of malware that does not require user intervention or another application to act as a host for it to replicate. Viruses and Macros require user intervention to spread, and Trojans are hosted within another application that appears harmless.
Incorrect
OBJ-3.1: A worm is a self-replicating type of malware that does not require user intervention or another application to act as a host for it to replicate. Viruses and Macros require user intervention to spread, and Trojans are hosted within another application that appears harmless.
Unattempted
OBJ-3.1: A worm is a self-replicating type of malware that does not require user intervention or another application to act as a host for it to replicate. Viruses and Macros require user intervention to spread, and Trojans are hosted within another application that appears harmless.
Question 6 of 65
6. Question
You have been contracted to conduct a compliance-based assessment for an organization. What is the MOST important thing for you to understand?
Correct
OBJ-1.4: The organization’s industry is the most important thing to consider and understand when conducting a compliance-based assessment. Compliance-based assessments are government or industry required assessments based on a particular compliance framework. For example, if you are conducting an assessment of a credit card processor, then PCI-DSS would be important to consider. If you are assessing a federal government IT system, then you should consider FEDRAMP. If you are conducting an assessment of a military or military contractor network, you should consider the DISA STIG for those systems.
Incorrect
OBJ-1.4: The organization’s industry is the most important thing to consider and understand when conducting a compliance-based assessment. Compliance-based assessments are government or industry required assessments based on a particular compliance framework. For example, if you are conducting an assessment of a credit card processor, then PCI-DSS would be important to consider. If you are assessing a federal government IT system, then you should consider FEDRAMP. If you are conducting an assessment of a military or military contractor network, you should consider the DISA STIG for those systems.
Unattempted
OBJ-1.4: The organization’s industry is the most important thing to consider and understand when conducting a compliance-based assessment. Compliance-based assessments are government or industry required assessments based on a particular compliance framework. For example, if you are conducting an assessment of a credit card processor, then PCI-DSS would be important to consider. If you are assessing a federal government IT system, then you should consider FEDRAMP. If you are conducting an assessment of a military or military contractor network, you should consider the DISA STIG for those systems.
Question 7 of 65
7. Question
Which of the following lateral movement techniques provides an HTTP Simple Access Object Protocol (SOAP) standard for specific remote management services on Windows systems?
Correct
OBJ-3.7: Windows Remote Management (WinRM) is a technology that provides an HTTP Simple Object Access Protocol (SOAP) standard for specific remote management services on Windows systems. These remote management services enable you to issue commands to remote systems without using an interactive shell.
Incorrect
OBJ-3.7: Windows Remote Management (WinRM) is a technology that provides an HTTP Simple Object Access Protocol (SOAP) standard for specific remote management services on Windows systems. These remote management services enable you to issue commands to remote systems without using an interactive shell.
Unattempted
OBJ-3.7: Windows Remote Management (WinRM) is a technology that provides an HTTP Simple Object Access Protocol (SOAP) standard for specific remote management services on Windows systems. These remote management services enable you to issue commands to remote systems without using an interactive shell.
Question 8 of 65
8. Question
You are conducting a password audit. Which of these options is the most complex password?
Correct
OBJ-4.3: The most complex password of these four options is 4@kn?Q9$. All four passwords are eight characters, so the most complex password will use the largest character set. As shown in the password 4@kn?Q9$, there are four character types: uppercase letters, lowercase letters, numbers, and symbols. The other options only use one, two, or three of these character types. This password uses all four, making it the most complex and secure option.
Incorrect
OBJ-4.3: The most complex password of these four options is 4@kn?Q9$. All four passwords are eight characters, so the most complex password will use the largest character set. As shown in the password 4@kn?Q9$, there are four character types: uppercase letters, lowercase letters, numbers, and symbols. The other options only use one, two, or three of these character types. This password uses all four, making it the most complex and secure option.
Unattempted
OBJ-4.3: The most complex password of these four options is 4@kn?Q9$. All four passwords are eight characters, so the most complex password will use the largest character set. As shown in the password 4@kn?Q9$, there are four character types: uppercase letters, lowercase letters, numbers, and symbols. The other options only use one, two, or three of these character types. This password uses all four, making it the most complex and secure option.
Question 9 of 65
9. Question
A user receives certificate errors in other languages within their web browser when accessing your company’s website. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of this issue?
Correct
OBJ-3.2: A man-in-the-middle attack is a general term when a perpetrator positions himself in a conversation between a user and an application, either to eavesdrop or impersonate one of the parties, making it appear as if a normal exchange of information is occurring. For example, if your user and server are both in the United States (English language), the attacker performing the MITM is from Russia. The user may see a certificate error in Russian instead of English.
Incorrect
OBJ-3.2: A man-in-the-middle attack is a general term when a perpetrator positions himself in a conversation between a user and an application, either to eavesdrop or impersonate one of the parties, making it appear as if a normal exchange of information is occurring. For example, if your user and server are both in the United States (English language), the attacker performing the MITM is from Russia. The user may see a certificate error in Russian instead of English.
Unattempted
OBJ-3.2: A man-in-the-middle attack is a general term when a perpetrator positions himself in a conversation between a user and an application, either to eavesdrop or impersonate one of the parties, making it appear as if a normal exchange of information is occurring. For example, if your user and server are both in the United States (English language), the attacker performing the MITM is from Russia. The user may see a certificate error in Russian instead of English.
Question 10 of 65
10. Question
An organization is conducting a cybersecurity training exercise. What team is Jason assigned to if he has been asked to monitor and manage the defenders’ and attackers’ technical environment during the exercise?
Correct
OBJ-1.3: Jason is assigned to the white team. The white team acts as the judges, enforces the rules of the exercise, observes the exercise, scores teams, resolves any problems that may arise, handles all requests for information or questions, and ensures that the competition runs fairly and does not cause operational problems for the defender’s mission. A red team is a group of people authorized and organized to emulate a potential adversary’s attack or exploitation capabilities against an enterprise’s security posture. A blue team is a group of people responsible for defending an enterprise’s use of information systems by maintaining its security posture against a group of mock attackers. The purple team is made up of both the blue and red teams to work together to maximize their cyber capabilities through continuous feedback and knowledge transfer between attackers and defenders.
Incorrect
OBJ-1.3: Jason is assigned to the white team. The white team acts as the judges, enforces the rules of the exercise, observes the exercise, scores teams, resolves any problems that may arise, handles all requests for information or questions, and ensures that the competition runs fairly and does not cause operational problems for the defender’s mission. A red team is a group of people authorized and organized to emulate a potential adversary’s attack or exploitation capabilities against an enterprise’s security posture. A blue team is a group of people responsible for defending an enterprise’s use of information systems by maintaining its security posture against a group of mock attackers. The purple team is made up of both the blue and red teams to work together to maximize their cyber capabilities through continuous feedback and knowledge transfer between attackers and defenders.
Unattempted
OBJ-1.3: Jason is assigned to the white team. The white team acts as the judges, enforces the rules of the exercise, observes the exercise, scores teams, resolves any problems that may arise, handles all requests for information or questions, and ensures that the competition runs fairly and does not cause operational problems for the defender’s mission. A red team is a group of people authorized and organized to emulate a potential adversary’s attack or exploitation capabilities against an enterprise’s security posture. A blue team is a group of people responsible for defending an enterprise’s use of information systems by maintaining its security posture against a group of mock attackers. The purple team is made up of both the blue and red teams to work together to maximize their cyber capabilities through continuous feedback and knowledge transfer between attackers and defenders.
Question 11 of 65
11. Question
Following an engagement, the penetration testing team has generated many recommendations for additional controls and items to be purchased to prevent future recurrences. Which of the following approaches BEST describes what the organization should do next?
Correct
OBJ-5.3: Since an engagement has just finished, it is important to act swiftly since its results are a point-in-time assessment. The organization should still take a defined and deliberate approach to choosing the proper controls and risk mitigations. Therefore, execution through a rational business management process is the best approach, including creating a prioritized list of recommendations. Once this list has been created, the organization can conduct a cost/benefit analysis of each recommendation and determine which controls and items will be implemented in the network-based upon resource availability in terms of time, person-hours, and money. This process does not need to be a long term study or filled with complexity. Instead, it should be rapidly conducted due to the probability that an attacker may compromise the network using the same vulnerabilities the penetration testing team found in their engagement.
Incorrect
OBJ-5.3: Since an engagement has just finished, it is important to act swiftly since its results are a point-in-time assessment. The organization should still take a defined and deliberate approach to choosing the proper controls and risk mitigations. Therefore, execution through a rational business management process is the best approach, including creating a prioritized list of recommendations. Once this list has been created, the organization can conduct a cost/benefit analysis of each recommendation and determine which controls and items will be implemented in the network-based upon resource availability in terms of time, person-hours, and money. This process does not need to be a long term study or filled with complexity. Instead, it should be rapidly conducted due to the probability that an attacker may compromise the network using the same vulnerabilities the penetration testing team found in their engagement.
Unattempted
OBJ-5.3: Since an engagement has just finished, it is important to act swiftly since its results are a point-in-time assessment. The organization should still take a defined and deliberate approach to choosing the proper controls and risk mitigations. Therefore, execution through a rational business management process is the best approach, including creating a prioritized list of recommendations. Once this list has been created, the organization can conduct a cost/benefit analysis of each recommendation and determine which controls and items will be implemented in the network-based upon resource availability in terms of time, person-hours, and money. This process does not need to be a long term study or filled with complexity. Instead, it should be rapidly conducted due to the probability that an attacker may compromise the network using the same vulnerabilities the penetration testing team found in their engagement.
Question 12 of 65
12. Question
Your company failed a recent security audit. The IT Directory has issued a new policy dictating that all workstations must be locked when not in use for more than 2 minutes. A password must be entered before booting up the operating system, and that the hard drive is fully encrypted. You have been asked to configure the corporate workstations to enforce these new security measures. Which THREE of the following should you configure FIRST?
Correct
OBJ-5.3: These requirements can be met by enabling BitLocker to encrypt the hard drive, enable a UEFI password to require a password to be entered before booting an operating system, and enabling a screen lock that turns on after 2 minutes of inactivity.
Incorrect
OBJ-5.3: These requirements can be met by enabling BitLocker to encrypt the hard drive, enable a UEFI password to require a password to be entered before booting an operating system, and enabling a screen lock that turns on after 2 minutes of inactivity.
Unattempted
OBJ-5.3: These requirements can be met by enabling BitLocker to encrypt the hard drive, enable a UEFI password to require a password to be entered before booting an operating system, and enabling a screen lock that turns on after 2 minutes of inactivity.
Question 13 of 65
13. Question
Which technique would provide the largest increase in security on a network with ICS, SCADA, or IoT devices?
Correct
OBJ-2.5: Since ICS, SCADA, and IoT devices often run proprietary, inaccessible, or unpatchable operating systems, the traditional tools used to detect the presence of malicious cyber activity in normal enterprise networks will not function properly. Therefore, user and entity behavior analytics (UEBA) is best suited to detect and classify known-good behavior from these systems to create a baseline. Once a known-good baseline is established, deviations can be detected and analyzed. UEBA may be heavily dependent on advanced computing techniques like artificial intelligence and machine learning and may have a higher false-positive rate. As the name suggests, the analytics software tracks user account behavior across different devices and cloud services. Entity refers to machine accounts, such as client workstations or virtualized server instances, and embedded hardware, such as the Internet of Things (IoT) devices. Traditional technologies include anti-virus tools, host-based IDS and IPS, and endpoint protection platforms.
Incorrect
OBJ-2.5: Since ICS, SCADA, and IoT devices often run proprietary, inaccessible, or unpatchable operating systems, the traditional tools used to detect the presence of malicious cyber activity in normal enterprise networks will not function properly. Therefore, user and entity behavior analytics (UEBA) is best suited to detect and classify known-good behavior from these systems to create a baseline. Once a known-good baseline is established, deviations can be detected and analyzed. UEBA may be heavily dependent on advanced computing techniques like artificial intelligence and machine learning and may have a higher false-positive rate. As the name suggests, the analytics software tracks user account behavior across different devices and cloud services. Entity refers to machine accounts, such as client workstations or virtualized server instances, and embedded hardware, such as the Internet of Things (IoT) devices. Traditional technologies include anti-virus tools, host-based IDS and IPS, and endpoint protection platforms.
Unattempted
OBJ-2.5: Since ICS, SCADA, and IoT devices often run proprietary, inaccessible, or unpatchable operating systems, the traditional tools used to detect the presence of malicious cyber activity in normal enterprise networks will not function properly. Therefore, user and entity behavior analytics (UEBA) is best suited to detect and classify known-good behavior from these systems to create a baseline. Once a known-good baseline is established, deviations can be detected and analyzed. UEBA may be heavily dependent on advanced computing techniques like artificial intelligence and machine learning and may have a higher false-positive rate. As the name suggests, the analytics software tracks user account behavior across different devices and cloud services. Entity refers to machine accounts, such as client workstations or virtualized server instances, and embedded hardware, such as the Internet of Things (IoT) devices. Traditional technologies include anti-virus tools, host-based IDS and IPS, and endpoint protection platforms.
Question 14 of 65
14. Question
Which of the following devices on the network should you target to access sensitive sales and financial data?
Correct
OBJ-2.5: The point of sale (POS) refers to the place where customers purchase goods or services from a business, and a POS system incorporates devices and networking capabilities that support this practice. POS devices can include everything from cash registers to mobile devices like tablets and smartphones. These devices are networked to backend servers that process and store transactional data, payment card data, and more.
Incorrect
OBJ-2.5: The point of sale (POS) refers to the place where customers purchase goods or services from a business, and a POS system incorporates devices and networking capabilities that support this practice. POS devices can include everything from cash registers to mobile devices like tablets and smartphones. These devices are networked to backend servers that process and store transactional data, payment card data, and more.
Unattempted
OBJ-2.5: The point of sale (POS) refers to the place where customers purchase goods or services from a business, and a POS system incorporates devices and networking capabilities that support this practice. POS devices can include everything from cash registers to mobile devices like tablets and smartphones. These devices are networked to backend servers that process and store transactional data, payment card data, and more.
Question 15 of 65
15. Question
What is not an example of a type of support resource that a pentester might receive as part of a white box assessment?
Correct
OBJ-1.1: White box support resources include architectural diagrams, sample application requests, SDK documentation, SOAP project files, Swagger documents, WSDL/WADL, and XML Scheme Definitions (XSD). The PII of employees should not be given to a penetration tester as this could violate laws and regulations regarding maintaining employee data confidentiality and privacy. White-box testing falls on the opposite end of the spectrum from black-box testing, and penetration testers are given full access to source code, architecture documentation, and so forth.
Incorrect
OBJ-1.1: White box support resources include architectural diagrams, sample application requests, SDK documentation, SOAP project files, Swagger documents, WSDL/WADL, and XML Scheme Definitions (XSD). The PII of employees should not be given to a penetration tester as this could violate laws and regulations regarding maintaining employee data confidentiality and privacy. White-box testing falls on the opposite end of the spectrum from black-box testing, and penetration testers are given full access to source code, architecture documentation, and so forth.
Unattempted
OBJ-1.1: White box support resources include architectural diagrams, sample application requests, SDK documentation, SOAP project files, Swagger documents, WSDL/WADL, and XML Scheme Definitions (XSD). The PII of employees should not be given to a penetration tester as this could violate laws and regulations regarding maintaining employee data confidentiality and privacy. White-box testing falls on the opposite end of the spectrum from black-box testing, and penetration testers are given full access to source code, architecture documentation, and so forth.
Question 16 of 65
16. Question
A small business network was recently infected by a piece of malware from a USB drive that copied sensitive data from a computer, infected the system, and then spread across the network by infecting other systems. Which of the following actions could have prevented this type of attack from occurring?
Correct
OBJ-5.3: The Windows AutoRun feature is turned on by default on most Windows versions, allowing programs to run from an external device as soon as it is attached to a computer. Malware can exploit the AutoRun feature and allow it to spread its payload from your external USB device to a computer. For this reason, users should disable the AutoRun feature.
Incorrect
OBJ-5.3: The Windows AutoRun feature is turned on by default on most Windows versions, allowing programs to run from an external device as soon as it is attached to a computer. Malware can exploit the AutoRun feature and allow it to spread its payload from your external USB device to a computer. For this reason, users should disable the AutoRun feature.
Unattempted
OBJ-5.3: The Windows AutoRun feature is turned on by default on most Windows versions, allowing programs to run from an external device as soon as it is attached to a computer. Malware can exploit the AutoRun feature and allow it to spread its payload from your external USB device to a computer. For this reason, users should disable the AutoRun feature.
Question 17 of 65
17. Question
You have been hired to conduct a compliance-based, external network penetration test for an organization. During the engagement planning, you determined that the client has an IPS protecting their network. You have requested to have your source IP whitelisted in the IPS during the engagement. The client states that they do not want to whitelist your source IP. Which of the following should you tell the client?
Correct
OBJ-1.4: If the source IP is not whitelisted, the penetration tester will have to waste a lot of time and resources trying to bypass it to test the rest of the systems in the exam’s scope. Instead, the source IP should be whitelisted. The final report should indicate which vulnerabilities found would be a lower risk due to the IPS already installed as a mitigating control.
Incorrect
OBJ-1.4: If the source IP is not whitelisted, the penetration tester will have to waste a lot of time and resources trying to bypass it to test the rest of the systems in the exam’s scope. Instead, the source IP should be whitelisted. The final report should indicate which vulnerabilities found would be a lower risk due to the IPS already installed as a mitigating control.
Unattempted
OBJ-1.4: If the source IP is not whitelisted, the penetration tester will have to waste a lot of time and resources trying to bypass it to test the rest of the systems in the exam’s scope. Instead, the source IP should be whitelisted. The final report should indicate which vulnerabilities found would be a lower risk due to the IPS already installed as a mitigating control.
Question 18 of 65
18. Question
Which of the following vulnerability scanning tools would be used to conduct a web application vulnerability assessment?
Correct
OBJ-4.2: Nikto is a web application scanner that can perform comprehensive tests against web servers for multiple items, including over 6700 potentially dangerous files/programs, checks for outdated versions of over 1250 servers, and version specific problems on over 270 servers. While OpenVAS, Nessus, and Qualys have the ability to scan the web servers themselves for vulnerabilities, they are not the best option to conduct a web application vulnerability assessment. OpenVAS, Nessus, and Qualys are infrastructure vulnerability scanners that focus on vulnerabilities with hosts and network devices.
Incorrect
OBJ-4.2: Nikto is a web application scanner that can perform comprehensive tests against web servers for multiple items, including over 6700 potentially dangerous files/programs, checks for outdated versions of over 1250 servers, and version specific problems on over 270 servers. While OpenVAS, Nessus, and Qualys have the ability to scan the web servers themselves for vulnerabilities, they are not the best option to conduct a web application vulnerability assessment. OpenVAS, Nessus, and Qualys are infrastructure vulnerability scanners that focus on vulnerabilities with hosts and network devices.
Unattempted
OBJ-4.2: Nikto is a web application scanner that can perform comprehensive tests against web servers for multiple items, including over 6700 potentially dangerous files/programs, checks for outdated versions of over 1250 servers, and version specific problems on over 270 servers. While OpenVAS, Nessus, and Qualys have the ability to scan the web servers themselves for vulnerabilities, they are not the best option to conduct a web application vulnerability assessment. OpenVAS, Nessus, and Qualys are infrastructure vulnerability scanners that focus on vulnerabilities with hosts and network devices.
Question 19 of 65
19. Question
Which technique is used with the ProxyChains command to allow a penetration tester to pivot to a new subnet?
Correct
OBJ-3.7: ProxyChains is a tool that allows a penetration tester to pivot to a new subnet, but it must be combined with the modification of the penetration tester’s routing tables on their machine. For example, assume that the exploited client machine is located in the 192.168.5.0/24 subnet, but you need to access a server in the 10.0.0.0/24 subnet. You would then need to “route add 10.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 1” (1 is the ID of your Meterpreter session). Then, you can run “proxychains ” to target the new subnet. For example, “proxychains nmap -sT -Pn -p21,23,25,80,443 10.0.0.5” would perform an nmap scan of the targeted server in the new subnet by chaining the connections together using a proxy on the localhost.
Incorrect
OBJ-3.7: ProxyChains is a tool that allows a penetration tester to pivot to a new subnet, but it must be combined with the modification of the penetration tester’s routing tables on their machine. For example, assume that the exploited client machine is located in the 192.168.5.0/24 subnet, but you need to access a server in the 10.0.0.0/24 subnet. You would then need to “route add 10.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 1” (1 is the ID of your Meterpreter session). Then, you can run “proxychains ” to target the new subnet. For example, “proxychains nmap -sT -Pn -p21,23,25,80,443 10.0.0.5” would perform an nmap scan of the targeted server in the new subnet by chaining the connections together using a proxy on the localhost.
Unattempted
OBJ-3.7: ProxyChains is a tool that allows a penetration tester to pivot to a new subnet, but it must be combined with the modification of the penetration tester’s routing tables on their machine. For example, assume that the exploited client machine is located in the 192.168.5.0/24 subnet, but you need to access a server in the 10.0.0.0/24 subnet. You would then need to “route add 10.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 1” (1 is the ID of your Meterpreter session). Then, you can run “proxychains ” to target the new subnet. For example, “proxychains nmap -sT -Pn -p21,23,25,80,443 10.0.0.5” would perform an nmap scan of the targeted server in the new subnet by chaining the connections together using a proxy on the localhost.
Question 20 of 65
20. Question
You are working as part of a penetration team that is assessing the security of a java-based practice exam application for Skillcertpro Training. You want to perform static code analysis on the application, but you don’t have the source code. Luckily, you were able to download a copy of the Java bytecode. Which of the following techniques should you utilize to get the bytecode ready for running through a static code analysis tool?
Correct
OBJ-4.2: To conduct a static analysis, you need to have the source code. Since the company didn’t provide it, you can use the Java bytecode (binary) and a decompiler to create the source code. JAD is a Java Application Decompiler. Brute forcing the application with hydra wouldn’t provide you the source code. It would only provide a password. Debuggers can be useful, but they will return bytecode level information and not source code. Peach is a great fuzzing tool, but fuzzing is a dynamic technique and not a static one.
Incorrect
OBJ-4.2: To conduct a static analysis, you need to have the source code. Since the company didn’t provide it, you can use the Java bytecode (binary) and a decompiler to create the source code. JAD is a Java Application Decompiler. Brute forcing the application with hydra wouldn’t provide you the source code. It would only provide a password. Debuggers can be useful, but they will return bytecode level information and not source code. Peach is a great fuzzing tool, but fuzzing is a dynamic technique and not a static one.
Unattempted
OBJ-4.2: To conduct a static analysis, you need to have the source code. Since the company didn’t provide it, you can use the Java bytecode (binary) and a decompiler to create the source code. JAD is a Java Application Decompiler. Brute forcing the application with hydra wouldn’t provide you the source code. It would only provide a password. Debuggers can be useful, but they will return bytecode level information and not source code. Peach is a great fuzzing tool, but fuzzing is a dynamic technique and not a static one.
Question 21 of 65
21. Question
Which of the following phase of a penetration test are not usually conducted by a real attacker?
Correct
OBJ-1.1: While a penetration test closely mirrors the same attack process used by a real attacker, the reporting phase is used only by penetration testers. The reporting phase is where the information gathered during testing and analysis is shared with stakeholders. Normally, this includes the vulnerabilities detected, vulnerabilities exploited, sensitive data accessed, length of access maintained, and recommendations for remediation.
Incorrect
OBJ-1.1: While a penetration test closely mirrors the same attack process used by a real attacker, the reporting phase is used only by penetration testers. The reporting phase is where the information gathered during testing and analysis is shared with stakeholders. Normally, this includes the vulnerabilities detected, vulnerabilities exploited, sensitive data accessed, length of access maintained, and recommendations for remediation.
Unattempted
OBJ-1.1: While a penetration test closely mirrors the same attack process used by a real attacker, the reporting phase is used only by penetration testers. The reporting phase is where the information gathered during testing and analysis is shared with stakeholders. Normally, this includes the vulnerabilities detected, vulnerabilities exploited, sensitive data accessed, length of access maintained, and recommendations for remediation.
Question 22 of 65
22. Question
Fail To Pass Systems has just been the victim of another embarrassing data breach. Their database administrator needed to work from home this weekend, so he downloaded the corporate database to his work laptop. On his way home, he left the laptop in an Uber, and a few days later, the data was posted on the internet. Which of the following mitigations would have provided the greatest protection against this data breach?
Correct
OBJ-5.3: The greatest protection against this data breach would have been to require data at rest encryption on all endpoints, including this laptop. If the laptop were encrypted, the data would not have been readable by others, even if it was lost or stolen. While requiring a VPN for all telework employees is a good idea, it would not have prevented this data breach since the laptop’s loss caused it. Even if a VPN had been used, the same data breach would have still occurred if the employee copied the database to the machine. Remember on exam day that many options are good security practices, but you must select the option that solves the issue or problem in the question being asked. Similarly, data masking and NDAs are useful techniques, but they would not have solved this particular data breach.
Incorrect
OBJ-5.3: The greatest protection against this data breach would have been to require data at rest encryption on all endpoints, including this laptop. If the laptop were encrypted, the data would not have been readable by others, even if it was lost or stolen. While requiring a VPN for all telework employees is a good idea, it would not have prevented this data breach since the laptop’s loss caused it. Even if a VPN had been used, the same data breach would have still occurred if the employee copied the database to the machine. Remember on exam day that many options are good security practices, but you must select the option that solves the issue or problem in the question being asked. Similarly, data masking and NDAs are useful techniques, but they would not have solved this particular data breach.
Unattempted
OBJ-5.3: The greatest protection against this data breach would have been to require data at rest encryption on all endpoints, including this laptop. If the laptop were encrypted, the data would not have been readable by others, even if it was lost or stolen. While requiring a VPN for all telework employees is a good idea, it would not have prevented this data breach since the laptop’s loss caused it. Even if a VPN had been used, the same data breach would have still occurred if the employee copied the database to the machine. Remember on exam day that many options are good security practices, but you must select the option that solves the issue or problem in the question being asked. Similarly, data masking and NDAs are useful techniques, but they would not have solved this particular data breach.
Question 23 of 65
23. Question
Which of the following secure coding best practices ensures special characters like <, >, /, and ‘ are not accepted from the user via a web form?
Correct
OBJ-5.3: Input validation is performed to ensure only properly formed data is entering the workflow in an information system, preventing malformed data from persisting in the database and triggering a malfunction of various downstream components. Input validation should happen as early as possible in the data flow, preferably as soon as the data is received from the user. Improper error handling can introduce various security problems where detailed internal error messages such as stack traces, database dumps, and error codes are displayed to an attacker. The session management implementation defines the exchange mechanism that will be used between the user and the web application to share and continuously exchange the session ID. Output encoding involves translating special characters into some different but equivalent form that is no longer dangerous in the target interpreter, for example, translating the < character into the < string when writing to an HTML page.
Incorrect
OBJ-5.3: Input validation is performed to ensure only properly formed data is entering the workflow in an information system, preventing malformed data from persisting in the database and triggering a malfunction of various downstream components. Input validation should happen as early as possible in the data flow, preferably as soon as the data is received from the user. Improper error handling can introduce various security problems where detailed internal error messages such as stack traces, database dumps, and error codes are displayed to an attacker. The session management implementation defines the exchange mechanism that will be used between the user and the web application to share and continuously exchange the session ID. Output encoding involves translating special characters into some different but equivalent form that is no longer dangerous in the target interpreter, for example, translating the < character into the < string when writing to an HTML page.
Unattempted
OBJ-5.3: Input validation is performed to ensure only properly formed data is entering the workflow in an information system, preventing malformed data from persisting in the database and triggering a malfunction of various downstream components. Input validation should happen as early as possible in the data flow, preferably as soon as the data is received from the user. Improper error handling can introduce various security problems where detailed internal error messages such as stack traces, database dumps, and error codes are displayed to an attacker. The session management implementation defines the exchange mechanism that will be used between the user and the web application to share and continuously exchange the session ID. Output encoding involves translating special characters into some different but equivalent form that is no longer dangerous in the target interpreter, for example, translating the < character into the < string when writing to an HTML page.
Question 24 of 65
24. Question
Which of the following is the MOST important thing to receive from the client during the planning for an engagement?
Correct
OBJ-1.3: When planning an engagement, it is crucial to understand the client’s goals and objectives. Basically, they need to answer the question, “What do I hope to achieve by conducting this penetration test?” This will allow you to better plan the engagement within the boundaries you and the client agree upon. For example, are they conducting the penetration test due to regulatory or compliance requirements? Are they trying to determine if a social engineering campaign would trick their employees? Are they trying to determine if their patch management program is effective? Each of these objectives has different methods that would be used in the engagement.
Incorrect
OBJ-1.3: When planning an engagement, it is crucial to understand the client’s goals and objectives. Basically, they need to answer the question, “What do I hope to achieve by conducting this penetration test?” This will allow you to better plan the engagement within the boundaries you and the client agree upon. For example, are they conducting the penetration test due to regulatory or compliance requirements? Are they trying to determine if a social engineering campaign would trick their employees? Are they trying to determine if their patch management program is effective? Each of these objectives has different methods that would be used in the engagement.
Unattempted
OBJ-1.3: When planning an engagement, it is crucial to understand the client’s goals and objectives. Basically, they need to answer the question, “What do I hope to achieve by conducting this penetration test?” This will allow you to better plan the engagement within the boundaries you and the client agree upon. For example, are they conducting the penetration test due to regulatory or compliance requirements? Are they trying to determine if a social engineering campaign would trick their employees? Are they trying to determine if their patch management program is effective? Each of these objectives has different methods that would be used in the engagement.
Question 25 of 65
25. Question
You are reviewing the logs in your IDS and see that entries were showing SYN packets received from a remote host targeting each port on your web server from 1 to 1024. Which of the following MOST likely occurred?
Correct
OBJ-3.2: Based on the description provided, this is most likely a port scan. Using a tool like nmap, an attacker can create an SYN scan across every port in a range against the desired target. A port scan or SYN scan may trigger an alert in your IDS. While scanners support more stealthy scans, default scans may connect to each port sequentially. The other options are incorrect because a remote host will typically connect to only a single port associated with a service. An SYN flood normally sends many SYNs to a single system. Still, it doesn’t send them to unused ports, and a UDP probe will not send SYN packets.
Incorrect
OBJ-3.2: Based on the description provided, this is most likely a port scan. Using a tool like nmap, an attacker can create an SYN scan across every port in a range against the desired target. A port scan or SYN scan may trigger an alert in your IDS. While scanners support more stealthy scans, default scans may connect to each port sequentially. The other options are incorrect because a remote host will typically connect to only a single port associated with a service. An SYN flood normally sends many SYNs to a single system. Still, it doesn’t send them to unused ports, and a UDP probe will not send SYN packets.
Unattempted
OBJ-3.2: Based on the description provided, this is most likely a port scan. Using a tool like nmap, an attacker can create an SYN scan across every port in a range against the desired target. A port scan or SYN scan may trigger an alert in your IDS. While scanners support more stealthy scans, default scans may connect to each port sequentially. The other options are incorrect because a remote host will typically connect to only a single port associated with a service. An SYN flood normally sends many SYNs to a single system. Still, it doesn’t send them to unused ports, and a UDP probe will not send SYN packets.
Question 26 of 65
26. Question
You have just concluded a two-month engagement that targeted Skillcertpro Training’s network. You have a detailed list of findings and have prepared your report for the company. Which of the following reasons explains why you must keep your report confidential and secure?
Correct
OBJ-5.1: To further reinforce the SOW, NDA, and any other legal documentation in effect, the client is likely to include confidentiality provisions within the engagement plan. This ensures that the information discovered during the penetration test is shared only with the appropriate entities. For example, if a penetration tester finds a major code injection vulnerability in the company’s public-facing website, the organization may require them to keep this information confidential to minimize the risk of it being exploited by an attacker.
Incorrect
OBJ-5.1: To further reinforce the SOW, NDA, and any other legal documentation in effect, the client is likely to include confidentiality provisions within the engagement plan. This ensures that the information discovered during the penetration test is shared only with the appropriate entities. For example, if a penetration tester finds a major code injection vulnerability in the company’s public-facing website, the organization may require them to keep this information confidential to minimize the risk of it being exploited by an attacker.
Unattempted
OBJ-5.1: To further reinforce the SOW, NDA, and any other legal documentation in effect, the client is likely to include confidentiality provisions within the engagement plan. This ensures that the information discovered during the penetration test is shared only with the appropriate entities. For example, if a penetration tester finds a major code injection vulnerability in the company’s public-facing website, the organization may require them to keep this information confidential to minimize the risk of it being exploited by an attacker.
Question 27 of 65
27. Question
An employee contacts the service desk because they cannot open an attachment they receive in their email. The service desk agent conducts a screen sharing session with the user and investigates the issue. The agent notices that the attached file is named Invoice1043.pdf, and a black pop-up window appears and then disappears quickly when the attachment was double-clicked. Which of the following is most likely causing this issue?
Correct
OBJ-2.4: The message contains a file attachment hoping that the user will execute or open it. The attachment’s nature might be disguised by formatting tricks such as using a double file extension, such as Invoice1043.pdf.exe, where the user only sees the first extension since .exe is a known file type in Windows. This would explain the black popup window that appears and then disappeared, especially if the exe file was running a command-line tool. This file is most likely not a PDF, so there is no need for a PDF reader. Additionally, most modern web browsers, such as Chrome and Edge, can open PDF files by default for the user. The file would not contain an embedded link since an embedded link is another popular attack vector that embeds a link to a malicious site within the email body, not within the file. This email is likely not spam and would be better categorized as a phishing attempt instead.
Incorrect
OBJ-2.4: The message contains a file attachment hoping that the user will execute or open it. The attachment’s nature might be disguised by formatting tricks such as using a double file extension, such as Invoice1043.pdf.exe, where the user only sees the first extension since .exe is a known file type in Windows. This would explain the black popup window that appears and then disappeared, especially if the exe file was running a command-line tool. This file is most likely not a PDF, so there is no need for a PDF reader. Additionally, most modern web browsers, such as Chrome and Edge, can open PDF files by default for the user. The file would not contain an embedded link since an embedded link is another popular attack vector that embeds a link to a malicious site within the email body, not within the file. This email is likely not spam and would be better categorized as a phishing attempt instead.
Unattempted
OBJ-2.4: The message contains a file attachment hoping that the user will execute or open it. The attachment’s nature might be disguised by formatting tricks such as using a double file extension, such as Invoice1043.pdf.exe, where the user only sees the first extension since .exe is a known file type in Windows. This would explain the black popup window that appears and then disappeared, especially if the exe file was running a command-line tool. This file is most likely not a PDF, so there is no need for a PDF reader. Additionally, most modern web browsers, such as Chrome and Edge, can open PDF files by default for the user. The file would not contain an embedded link since an embedded link is another popular attack vector that embeds a link to a malicious site within the email body, not within the file. This email is likely not spam and would be better categorized as a phishing attempt instead.
Question 28 of 65
28. Question
Which type of monitoring would utilize a network tap?
Correct
OBJ-3.2: Network taps are devices that allow a copy of network traffic to be captured for analysis. They conduct passive network monitoring and visibility without interfering with the network traffic itself. Active monitoring relies on scanning targeted systems, not a network tap. Router-based monitoring would involve looking over the router’s logs and configuration files. SNMP is used to monitor network devices but is considered active monitoring and doesn’t rely on network taps.
Incorrect
OBJ-3.2: Network taps are devices that allow a copy of network traffic to be captured for analysis. They conduct passive network monitoring and visibility without interfering with the network traffic itself. Active monitoring relies on scanning targeted systems, not a network tap. Router-based monitoring would involve looking over the router’s logs and configuration files. SNMP is used to monitor network devices but is considered active monitoring and doesn’t rely on network taps.
Unattempted
OBJ-3.2: Network taps are devices that allow a copy of network traffic to be captured for analysis. They conduct passive network monitoring and visibility without interfering with the network traffic itself. Active monitoring relies on scanning targeted systems, not a network tap. Router-based monitoring would involve looking over the router’s logs and configuration files. SNMP is used to monitor network devices but is considered active monitoring and doesn’t rely on network taps.
Question 29 of 65
29. Question
Which file on a Linux system contains the passwords for each user on the system?
Correct
OBJ-3.5: The /etc/shadow file stores the actual password in an encrypted format (more like the hash of the password) for the user’s account with additional properties related to the user password. Basically, it stores secure user account information. All fields are separated by a colon (:) symbol. It contains one entry per line for each user listed in /etc/passwd file.
Incorrect
OBJ-3.5: The /etc/shadow file stores the actual password in an encrypted format (more like the hash of the password) for the user’s account with additional properties related to the user password. Basically, it stores secure user account information. All fields are separated by a colon (:) symbol. It contains one entry per line for each user listed in /etc/passwd file.
Unattempted
OBJ-3.5: The /etc/shadow file stores the actual password in an encrypted format (more like the hash of the password) for the user’s account with additional properties related to the user password. Basically, it stores secure user account information. All fields are separated by a colon (:) symbol. It contains one entry per line for each user listed in /etc/passwd file.
Question 30 of 65
30. Question
Which of the following is the biggest weakness with ICS and SCADA systems in a network?
Correct
OBJ-2.5: Industrial control system (ICS) and supervisory control and data acquisition (SCADA) systems were developed many years before security standards were established and integrated into their design. Many of these older systems date back to the 1970s and are still in use today. Over time, these systems were incorporated into the organization’s TCP/IP data networks, which provides a huge exploitation area by penetration testers and attackers alike. Many ICS and SCADA vendors are slow to implement security measures since they cannot be easily retrofitted with the newer security required. Therefore, ICS and SCADA systems should ALWAYS be isolated from production networks and segmented into their own logical network. For example, some ICS/SCADA systems use a proprietary operating system. More modern ICS/SCADA operates using a version of Windows. However, many still use Windows XP, making them much more vulnerable since they cannot be upgraded to Windows 10 without hardware replacement.
Incorrect
OBJ-2.5: Industrial control system (ICS) and supervisory control and data acquisition (SCADA) systems were developed many years before security standards were established and integrated into their design. Many of these older systems date back to the 1970s and are still in use today. Over time, these systems were incorporated into the organization’s TCP/IP data networks, which provides a huge exploitation area by penetration testers and attackers alike. Many ICS and SCADA vendors are slow to implement security measures since they cannot be easily retrofitted with the newer security required. Therefore, ICS and SCADA systems should ALWAYS be isolated from production networks and segmented into their own logical network. For example, some ICS/SCADA systems use a proprietary operating system. More modern ICS/SCADA operates using a version of Windows. However, many still use Windows XP, making them much more vulnerable since they cannot be upgraded to Windows 10 without hardware replacement.
Unattempted
OBJ-2.5: Industrial control system (ICS) and supervisory control and data acquisition (SCADA) systems were developed many years before security standards were established and integrated into their design. Many of these older systems date back to the 1970s and are still in use today. Over time, these systems were incorporated into the organization’s TCP/IP data networks, which provides a huge exploitation area by penetration testers and attackers alike. Many ICS and SCADA vendors are slow to implement security measures since they cannot be easily retrofitted with the newer security required. Therefore, ICS and SCADA systems should ALWAYS be isolated from production networks and segmented into their own logical network. For example, some ICS/SCADA systems use a proprietary operating system. More modern ICS/SCADA operates using a version of Windows. However, many still use Windows XP, making them much more vulnerable since they cannot be upgraded to Windows 10 without hardware replacement.
Question 31 of 65
31. Question
Your company, HackMe Incorporated, is a US-based company specializing in conducting penetration tests for large corporations. Big Corp has recently asked you to perform a penetration test of its offices in Saudi Arabia and Iran. The penetration test would include both remote attacks and on on-site USB key drop attack. Which of the following MUST you investigate BEFORE you begin to negotiate the contract for this engagement?
Correct
OBJ-1.2: The United States has export restrictions that govern the shipment or transfer of software, technology, services, and other controlled items outside of the United States borders. The Export Administration Regulations (EAR) is regulated by the Bureau of Industry and Security (BIS) within the U.S. Department of Commerce. The EAR may control the export, re-export, or transfer of items such as software, hardware, algorithms, and other technical items you may require for your on-site penetration test. Exports can include the transfer of a physical product from inside the US to an external location and other actions. The simple act of releasing technology to someone other than a US citizen or lawful permanent resident within the United States is deemed an export. This includes making available software for electronic transmission that can be received by individuals outside the US.
Incorrect
OBJ-1.2: The United States has export restrictions that govern the shipment or transfer of software, technology, services, and other controlled items outside of the United States borders. The Export Administration Regulations (EAR) is regulated by the Bureau of Industry and Security (BIS) within the U.S. Department of Commerce. The EAR may control the export, re-export, or transfer of items such as software, hardware, algorithms, and other technical items you may require for your on-site penetration test. Exports can include the transfer of a physical product from inside the US to an external location and other actions. The simple act of releasing technology to someone other than a US citizen or lawful permanent resident within the United States is deemed an export. This includes making available software for electronic transmission that can be received by individuals outside the US.
Unattempted
OBJ-1.2: The United States has export restrictions that govern the shipment or transfer of software, technology, services, and other controlled items outside of the United States borders. The Export Administration Regulations (EAR) is regulated by the Bureau of Industry and Security (BIS) within the U.S. Department of Commerce. The EAR may control the export, re-export, or transfer of items such as software, hardware, algorithms, and other technical items you may require for your on-site penetration test. Exports can include the transfer of a physical product from inside the US to an external location and other actions. The simple act of releasing technology to someone other than a US citizen or lawful permanent resident within the United States is deemed an export. This includes making available software for electronic transmission that can be received by individuals outside the US.
Question 32 of 65
32. Question
Which of the following considerations should be discussed with a client during the engagement planning to determine if the penetration tester will need to bypass the requirement of gaining a PKI key for their host to connect to the client’s network?
Correct
OBJ-1.3: Certificate pinning is the process of associating a host with its expected X.509 certificate or public key. Pinning bypasses the certificate authority (CA) hierarchy and chain of trust to lessen the impact of man-in-the-middle attacks. If the client’s network uses certificate pinning, the penetration test may request an exception or a certificate issued to their machine.
Incorrect
OBJ-1.3: Certificate pinning is the process of associating a host with its expected X.509 certificate or public key. Pinning bypasses the certificate authority (CA) hierarchy and chain of trust to lessen the impact of man-in-the-middle attacks. If the client’s network uses certificate pinning, the penetration test may request an exception or a certificate issued to their machine.
Unattempted
OBJ-1.3: Certificate pinning is the process of associating a host with its expected X.509 certificate or public key. Pinning bypasses the certificate authority (CA) hierarchy and chain of trust to lessen the impact of man-in-the-middle attacks. If the client’s network uses certificate pinning, the penetration test may request an exception or a certificate issued to their machine.
Question 33 of 65
33. Question
After analyzing and correlating activity from the firewall logs, server logs, and the intrusion detection system logs, a cybersecurity analyst has determined that a sophisticated breach of the company’s network security may have occurred from a group of specialized attackers in a foreign country over the past five months. Up until now, these cyberattacks against the company network had gone unnoticed by the company’s information security team. How would you best classify this threat?
Correct
OBJ-1.3: An advanced persistent threat (APT) is a network attack in which an unauthorized person gains access to a network and stays there undetected for a long period of time. An APT attack intends to steal data rather than to cause damage to the network or organization. An APT refers to an adversary’s ongoing ability to compromise network security, obtain and maintain access, and use various tools and techniques. They are often supported and funded by nation-states or work directly for a nation-states’ government. Spear phishing is the fraudulent practice of sending emails ostensibly from a known or trusted sender to induce targeted individuals to reveal confidential information. An insider threat is a malicious threat to an organization from people within the organization, such as employees, former employees, contractors, or business associates, who have inside information concerning the organization’s security practices, data, and computer systems. Privilege escalation is the act of exploiting a bug, design flaw, or configuration oversight in an operating system or software application to gain elevated access to resources that are normally protected from an application or user. While an APT may use spear phishing, privilege escalation, or an insider threat to gain access to the system, the scenario presented in this question doesn’t specify what method was used. Therefore, APT is the best answer to select.
Incorrect
OBJ-1.3: An advanced persistent threat (APT) is a network attack in which an unauthorized person gains access to a network and stays there undetected for a long period of time. An APT attack intends to steal data rather than to cause damage to the network or organization. An APT refers to an adversary’s ongoing ability to compromise network security, obtain and maintain access, and use various tools and techniques. They are often supported and funded by nation-states or work directly for a nation-states’ government. Spear phishing is the fraudulent practice of sending emails ostensibly from a known or trusted sender to induce targeted individuals to reveal confidential information. An insider threat is a malicious threat to an organization from people within the organization, such as employees, former employees, contractors, or business associates, who have inside information concerning the organization’s security practices, data, and computer systems. Privilege escalation is the act of exploiting a bug, design flaw, or configuration oversight in an operating system or software application to gain elevated access to resources that are normally protected from an application or user. While an APT may use spear phishing, privilege escalation, or an insider threat to gain access to the system, the scenario presented in this question doesn’t specify what method was used. Therefore, APT is the best answer to select.
Unattempted
OBJ-1.3: An advanced persistent threat (APT) is a network attack in which an unauthorized person gains access to a network and stays there undetected for a long period of time. An APT attack intends to steal data rather than to cause damage to the network or organization. An APT refers to an adversary’s ongoing ability to compromise network security, obtain and maintain access, and use various tools and techniques. They are often supported and funded by nation-states or work directly for a nation-states’ government. Spear phishing is the fraudulent practice of sending emails ostensibly from a known or trusted sender to induce targeted individuals to reveal confidential information. An insider threat is a malicious threat to an organization from people within the organization, such as employees, former employees, contractors, or business associates, who have inside information concerning the organization’s security practices, data, and computer systems. Privilege escalation is the act of exploiting a bug, design flaw, or configuration oversight in an operating system or software application to gain elevated access to resources that are normally protected from an application or user. While an APT may use spear phishing, privilege escalation, or an insider threat to gain access to the system, the scenario presented in this question doesn’t specify what method was used. Therefore, APT is the best answer to select.
Question 34 of 65
34. Question
You have just completed writing the scoping document for your next penetration test, which clearly defines what tools, techniques, and targets you intend to include during your assessment. Which of the following actions should you take next?
Correct
OBJ-1.2: Once the scoping document has been prepared, you must get concurrence with your plan before you begin your penetration test. Therefore, you must get the scoping plan signed off by the organization’s leadership as your next action. You should never begin a penetration test before you have written permission and concurrence from the target organization. Port scanning of the target and even passive fingerprinting could be construed as a cybercrime if you did not get the scoping document signed off before beginning your assessment. There is no requirement to notify local law enforcement of your upcoming penetration test as long as you have a signed scoping document and contract with the targeted company.
Incorrect
OBJ-1.2: Once the scoping document has been prepared, you must get concurrence with your plan before you begin your penetration test. Therefore, you must get the scoping plan signed off by the organization’s leadership as your next action. You should never begin a penetration test before you have written permission and concurrence from the target organization. Port scanning of the target and even passive fingerprinting could be construed as a cybercrime if you did not get the scoping document signed off before beginning your assessment. There is no requirement to notify local law enforcement of your upcoming penetration test as long as you have a signed scoping document and contract with the targeted company.
Unattempted
OBJ-1.2: Once the scoping document has been prepared, you must get concurrence with your plan before you begin your penetration test. Therefore, you must get the scoping plan signed off by the organization’s leadership as your next action. You should never begin a penetration test before you have written permission and concurrence from the target organization. Port scanning of the target and even passive fingerprinting could be construed as a cybercrime if you did not get the scoping document signed off before beginning your assessment. There is no requirement to notify local law enforcement of your upcoming penetration test as long as you have a signed scoping document and contract with the targeted company.
Question 35 of 65
35. Question
Which of the following information is traditionally found in the SOW for a penetration test?
Correct
OBJ-1.2: A Scope of Work (SOW) for a penetration test normally contains the list of excluded hosts. This ensures that the penetration tester does not affect hosts, workstations, or servers outside the assessment scope. The timing of the scan and the maintenance windows are usually found in the rules of engagement (ROE). The executive summary report contents are usually not identified in any of the scoping documents, only the requirement of whether such a report is to be delivered at the end of the assessment.
Incorrect
OBJ-1.2: A Scope of Work (SOW) for a penetration test normally contains the list of excluded hosts. This ensures that the penetration tester does not affect hosts, workstations, or servers outside the assessment scope. The timing of the scan and the maintenance windows are usually found in the rules of engagement (ROE). The executive summary report contents are usually not identified in any of the scoping documents, only the requirement of whether such a report is to be delivered at the end of the assessment.
Unattempted
OBJ-1.2: A Scope of Work (SOW) for a penetration test normally contains the list of excluded hosts. This ensures that the penetration tester does not affect hosts, workstations, or servers outside the assessment scope. The timing of the scan and the maintenance windows are usually found in the rules of engagement (ROE). The executive summary report contents are usually not identified in any of the scoping documents, only the requirement of whether such a report is to be delivered at the end of the assessment.
Question 36 of 65
36. Question
Which of the following types of attackers are sophisticated and highly organized people or teams typically sponsored by a nation-state?
Correct
OBJ-1.3: Advanced Persistent Threat (APT) attackers are sophisticated and have access to financial and technical resources typically provided by a government. An APT is an attacker with the ability to obtain, maintain, and diversify access to network systems using exploits and malware. A hacktivist is an attacker that is motivated by a social issue or political cause. A script kiddie has little skill or sophistication and uses publicly available tools and techniques. An ethical hacker specializes in penetration testing and in other testing methodologies that ensure the security of an organization’s information systems. An ethical hacker is also known as a white hat hacker.
Incorrect
OBJ-1.3: Advanced Persistent Threat (APT) attackers are sophisticated and have access to financial and technical resources typically provided by a government. An APT is an attacker with the ability to obtain, maintain, and diversify access to network systems using exploits and malware. A hacktivist is an attacker that is motivated by a social issue or political cause. A script kiddie has little skill or sophistication and uses publicly available tools and techniques. An ethical hacker specializes in penetration testing and in other testing methodologies that ensure the security of an organization’s information systems. An ethical hacker is also known as a white hat hacker.
Unattempted
OBJ-1.3: Advanced Persistent Threat (APT) attackers are sophisticated and have access to financial and technical resources typically provided by a government. An APT is an attacker with the ability to obtain, maintain, and diversify access to network systems using exploits and malware. A hacktivist is an attacker that is motivated by a social issue or political cause. A script kiddie has little skill or sophistication and uses publicly available tools and techniques. An ethical hacker specializes in penetration testing and in other testing methodologies that ensure the security of an organization’s information systems. An ethical hacker is also known as a white hat hacker.
Question 37 of 65
37. Question
Matt is creating a scoping worksheet for an upcoming penetration test for his organization. Which of the following techniques is NOT usually included in a penetration test?
Correct
OBJ-1.3: A denial-of-service or DoS attack isn’t usually included as part of a penetration test. This type of attack contains too much risk for an organization to allow it to be included in an assessment scope. Social engineering, physical penetration attempts, and reverse engineering are all commonly included in a penetration test’s scope.
Incorrect
OBJ-1.3: A denial-of-service or DoS attack isn’t usually included as part of a penetration test. This type of attack contains too much risk for an organization to allow it to be included in an assessment scope. Social engineering, physical penetration attempts, and reverse engineering are all commonly included in a penetration test’s scope.
Unattempted
OBJ-1.3: A denial-of-service or DoS attack isn’t usually included as part of a penetration test. This type of attack contains too much risk for an organization to allow it to be included in an assessment scope. Social engineering, physical penetration attempts, and reverse engineering are all commonly included in a penetration test’s scope.
Question 38 of 65
38. Question
You have been contracted to conduct a wireless penetration test for a corporate client. Which of the following should be documented and agreed upon in the scoping documents before you begin your assessment?
Correct
OBJ-1.3: To ensure you are not accidentally targeting another organization’s wireless infrastructure during your penetration test, you should have the frequencies of the wireless access points and devices used by the client documented in the scoping documents. This would include whether your clients use Wireless A, B, G, N, or AC and if they are using the 2.4 GHz or 5.0 GHz spectrum if they are using Wireless N or AC.
Incorrect
OBJ-1.3: To ensure you are not accidentally targeting another organization’s wireless infrastructure during your penetration test, you should have the frequencies of the wireless access points and devices used by the client documented in the scoping documents. This would include whether your clients use Wireless A, B, G, N, or AC and if they are using the 2.4 GHz or 5.0 GHz spectrum if they are using Wireless N or AC.
Unattempted
OBJ-1.3: To ensure you are not accidentally targeting another organization’s wireless infrastructure during your penetration test, you should have the frequencies of the wireless access points and devices used by the client documented in the scoping documents. This would include whether your clients use Wireless A, B, G, N, or AC and if they are using the 2.4 GHz or 5.0 GHz spectrum if they are using Wireless N or AC.
Question 39 of 65
39. Question
What is a formal document that states what will and will not be performed during a penetration test?
Correct
OBJ-1.2: The Scope of Work is a formal document stating what will and will not be performed during a penetration test. It should also contain the assessment’s size and scope and a list of the assessment’s objectives. A master service agreement, or MSA, is a contract reached between parties, in which the parties agree to most of the terms that will govern future transactions or future agreements. The MSA is used when a pentester will be on retainer for a multi-year contract, and an individual SOW will be issued for each assessment to define the individual scopes for each one. A non-disclosure agreement (NDA) is a legal contract between at least two parties that outlines confidential material, knowledge, or information that the parties wish to share for certain purposes but wish to restrict access. Corporate policy is a documented set of broad guidelines, formulated after analyzing all internal and external factors that can affect an organization’s objectives, operations, and plans.
Incorrect
OBJ-1.2: The Scope of Work is a formal document stating what will and will not be performed during a penetration test. It should also contain the assessment’s size and scope and a list of the assessment’s objectives. A master service agreement, or MSA, is a contract reached between parties, in which the parties agree to most of the terms that will govern future transactions or future agreements. The MSA is used when a pentester will be on retainer for a multi-year contract, and an individual SOW will be issued for each assessment to define the individual scopes for each one. A non-disclosure agreement (NDA) is a legal contract between at least two parties that outlines confidential material, knowledge, or information that the parties wish to share for certain purposes but wish to restrict access. Corporate policy is a documented set of broad guidelines, formulated after analyzing all internal and external factors that can affect an organization’s objectives, operations, and plans.
Unattempted
OBJ-1.2: The Scope of Work is a formal document stating what will and will not be performed during a penetration test. It should also contain the assessment’s size and scope and a list of the assessment’s objectives. A master service agreement, or MSA, is a contract reached between parties, in which the parties agree to most of the terms that will govern future transactions or future agreements. The MSA is used when a pentester will be on retainer for a multi-year contract, and an individual SOW will be issued for each assessment to define the individual scopes for each one. A non-disclosure agreement (NDA) is a legal contract between at least two parties that outlines confidential material, knowledge, or information that the parties wish to share for certain purposes but wish to restrict access. Corporate policy is a documented set of broad guidelines, formulated after analyzing all internal and external factors that can affect an organization’s objectives, operations, and plans.
Question 40 of 65
40. Question
Based on some old SIEM alerts, you have been asked to perform a forensic analysis on a given host. You have noticed that some SSL network connections are occurring over ports other than port 443. The SIEM alerts indicate that copies of svchost.exe and cmd.exe have been found in the host’s %TEMP% folder. The logs indicate that RDP connections have previously connected with an IP address that is external to the corporate intranet, as well. What threat might you have uncovered during your analysis?
Correct
OBJ-1.3: The provided indicators of compromise appear to be from an Advanced Persistent Threat (APT). These attacks tend to go undetected for several weeks or months and utilize secure communication to external IPs and Remote Desktop Protocol connections to provide the attackers with access to the infected host. While an APT might use a software vulnerability to gain their initial access, the full description provided in the question that includes the files being copied and executed from the %TEMP% folder and the use of SSL/RDP connections indicates longer-term exploitation, such as one caused by an APT.
Incorrect
OBJ-1.3: The provided indicators of compromise appear to be from an Advanced Persistent Threat (APT). These attacks tend to go undetected for several weeks or months and utilize secure communication to external IPs and Remote Desktop Protocol connections to provide the attackers with access to the infected host. While an APT might use a software vulnerability to gain their initial access, the full description provided in the question that includes the files being copied and executed from the %TEMP% folder and the use of SSL/RDP connections indicates longer-term exploitation, such as one caused by an APT.
Unattempted
OBJ-1.3: The provided indicators of compromise appear to be from an Advanced Persistent Threat (APT). These attacks tend to go undetected for several weeks or months and utilize secure communication to external IPs and Remote Desktop Protocol connections to provide the attackers with access to the infected host. While an APT might use a software vulnerability to gain their initial access, the full description provided in the question that includes the files being copied and executed from the %TEMP% folder and the use of SSL/RDP connections indicates longer-term exploitation, such as one caused by an APT.
Question 41 of 65
41. Question
What is the utilization of insights gained from threat research and threat modeling to proactively discover evidence of adversarial TTPs within a network or system called?
Correct
OBJ-1.3: Threat hunting is the utilization of insights gained from threat research and threat modeling to proactively discover evidence of adversarial TTPs within a network or system. Penetration testing uses active tools and security utilities to evaluate security by simulating an attack on a system. A penetration test verifies that a threat exists, actively tests and bypasses security controls, and finally exploits vulnerabilities on the system. Information assurance (IA) is the practice of assuring information and managing risks related to the use, processing, storage, and transmission of information or data and the systems and processes used for those purposes. Incident response is an organized approach to addressing and managing the aftermath of a security breach or cyberattack, also known as an IT incident, computer incident, or security incident. The goal is to handle the situation to limit damage and reduce recovery time and costs.
Incorrect
OBJ-1.3: Threat hunting is the utilization of insights gained from threat research and threat modeling to proactively discover evidence of adversarial TTPs within a network or system. Penetration testing uses active tools and security utilities to evaluate security by simulating an attack on a system. A penetration test verifies that a threat exists, actively tests and bypasses security controls, and finally exploits vulnerabilities on the system. Information assurance (IA) is the practice of assuring information and managing risks related to the use, processing, storage, and transmission of information or data and the systems and processes used for those purposes. Incident response is an organized approach to addressing and managing the aftermath of a security breach or cyberattack, also known as an IT incident, computer incident, or security incident. The goal is to handle the situation to limit damage and reduce recovery time and costs.
Unattempted
OBJ-1.3: Threat hunting is the utilization of insights gained from threat research and threat modeling to proactively discover evidence of adversarial TTPs within a network or system. Penetration testing uses active tools and security utilities to evaluate security by simulating an attack on a system. A penetration test verifies that a threat exists, actively tests and bypasses security controls, and finally exploits vulnerabilities on the system. Information assurance (IA) is the practice of assuring information and managing risks related to the use, processing, storage, and transmission of information or data and the systems and processes used for those purposes. Incident response is an organized approach to addressing and managing the aftermath of a security breach or cyberattack, also known as an IT incident, computer incident, or security incident. The goal is to handle the situation to limit damage and reduce recovery time and costs.
Question 42 of 65
42. Question
You are a penetration tester hired by an organization that wants you to conduct a risk assessment of their DMZ. The company provided Rules of Engagement states that you must do all penetration testing from an external IP address without any prior knowledge of the internal IT system architecture. What kind of penetration test will you perform?
Correct
OBJ-1.3: A black box penetration test requires no previous information and usually takes the approach of an uninformed attacker. The penetration tester has no prior information about the target system or network in a black box penetration test. These tests provide a realistic scenario for testing the defenses, but they can be costlier and takes much more time to conduct. A black box tester is examining a system from an outsider’s perspective. A gray-box tester has the user’s access and knowledge levels, potentially with elevated privileges on a system. Gray-box penetration testers typically have some knowledge of a network’s internals, potentially including design and architecture documentation and an account internal to the network. White-box testing goes by several different names, including clear-box, open-box, auxiliary and logic-driven testing. It falls on the opposite end of the spectrum from black-box testing, and penetration testers have full access to source code, architecture documentation, and so forth. Unlike black-box and gray-box testing, white-box penetration testers can perform static code analysis, so familiarity with source code analyzers, debuggers, and similar tools are necessary for this type of testing. A red team is a group that helps organizations to improve themselves by providing opposition to the point of view of the organization that they are helping. Penetration testers often work as part of a red team.
Incorrect
OBJ-1.3: A black box penetration test requires no previous information and usually takes the approach of an uninformed attacker. The penetration tester has no prior information about the target system or network in a black box penetration test. These tests provide a realistic scenario for testing the defenses, but they can be costlier and takes much more time to conduct. A black box tester is examining a system from an outsider’s perspective. A gray-box tester has the user’s access and knowledge levels, potentially with elevated privileges on a system. Gray-box penetration testers typically have some knowledge of a network’s internals, potentially including design and architecture documentation and an account internal to the network. White-box testing goes by several different names, including clear-box, open-box, auxiliary and logic-driven testing. It falls on the opposite end of the spectrum from black-box testing, and penetration testers have full access to source code, architecture documentation, and so forth. Unlike black-box and gray-box testing, white-box penetration testers can perform static code analysis, so familiarity with source code analyzers, debuggers, and similar tools are necessary for this type of testing. A red team is a group that helps organizations to improve themselves by providing opposition to the point of view of the organization that they are helping. Penetration testers often work as part of a red team.
Unattempted
OBJ-1.3: A black box penetration test requires no previous information and usually takes the approach of an uninformed attacker. The penetration tester has no prior information about the target system or network in a black box penetration test. These tests provide a realistic scenario for testing the defenses, but they can be costlier and takes much more time to conduct. A black box tester is examining a system from an outsider’s perspective. A gray-box tester has the user’s access and knowledge levels, potentially with elevated privileges on a system. Gray-box penetration testers typically have some knowledge of a network’s internals, potentially including design and architecture documentation and an account internal to the network. White-box testing goes by several different names, including clear-box, open-box, auxiliary and logic-driven testing. It falls on the opposite end of the spectrum from black-box testing, and penetration testers have full access to source code, architecture documentation, and so forth. Unlike black-box and gray-box testing, white-box penetration testers can perform static code analysis, so familiarity with source code analyzers, debuggers, and similar tools are necessary for this type of testing. A red team is a group that helps organizations to improve themselves by providing opposition to the point of view of the organization that they are helping. Penetration testers often work as part of a red team.
Question 43 of 65
43. Question
A security engineer is using the Kali Linux operating system and is writing exploits in C++. What command should they use to compile their new exploit and name it notepad.exe?
Correct
OBJ-2.4: g++ is free C++ compiler that is available across a wide variety of operating systems, and is installed by default as part of Kali Linux. The proper syntax to compile a C++ file (*.cpp) is “g++ filename -o outputfile”, so “g++ exploit.cpp -0 notepad.exe” is correct.
Incorrect
OBJ-2.4: g++ is free C++ compiler that is available across a wide variety of operating systems, and is installed by default as part of Kali Linux. The proper syntax to compile a C++ file (*.cpp) is “g++ filename -o outputfile”, so “g++ exploit.cpp -0 notepad.exe” is correct.
Unattempted
OBJ-2.4: g++ is free C++ compiler that is available across a wide variety of operating systems, and is installed by default as part of Kali Linux. The proper syntax to compile a C++ file (*.cpp) is “g++ filename -o outputfile”, so “g++ exploit.cpp -0 notepad.exe” is correct.
Question 44 of 65
44. Question
A vulnerability scan has returned the following results:
-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-
Detailed Results
10.56.17.21 (APACHE-2.4)
Windows Shares
Category: Windows
CVE ID: –
Vendor Ref: –
Bugtraq ID: –
Service Modified – 8.30.2017
Enumeration Results:
print$ c:\windows\system32\spool\drivers
files c:\FileShare\Accounting
Temp c:\temp
-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-
What best describes the meaning of this output?
Correct
OBJ-2.3: These results from the vulnerability scan conducted shows an enumeration of open Windows shares on an Apache server. The enumeration results show three share names (print$, files, Temp) were found using a null session connection. There is no associated CVE with this vulnerability, but it is not a false positive. Not all vulnerabilities have a CVE associated with them. Nothing in this output indicates anything concerning Windows Defender, so this is not the correct answer. Bugtraq IDs are a different type of identification number issued for vulnerabilities by SecurityFocus. Generally, if there is a CVE, there will also be a Bugtraq ID. Both the CVE and Bugtraq ID being blank is not suspicious since we are dealing with a null enumeration result.
Incorrect
OBJ-2.3: These results from the vulnerability scan conducted shows an enumeration of open Windows shares on an Apache server. The enumeration results show three share names (print$, files, Temp) were found using a null session connection. There is no associated CVE with this vulnerability, but it is not a false positive. Not all vulnerabilities have a CVE associated with them. Nothing in this output indicates anything concerning Windows Defender, so this is not the correct answer. Bugtraq IDs are a different type of identification number issued for vulnerabilities by SecurityFocus. Generally, if there is a CVE, there will also be a Bugtraq ID. Both the CVE and Bugtraq ID being blank is not suspicious since we are dealing with a null enumeration result.
Unattempted
OBJ-2.3: These results from the vulnerability scan conducted shows an enumeration of open Windows shares on an Apache server. The enumeration results show three share names (print$, files, Temp) were found using a null session connection. There is no associated CVE with this vulnerability, but it is not a false positive. Not all vulnerabilities have a CVE associated with them. Nothing in this output indicates anything concerning Windows Defender, so this is not the correct answer. Bugtraq IDs are a different type of identification number issued for vulnerabilities by SecurityFocus. Generally, if there is a CVE, there will also be a Bugtraq ID. Both the CVE and Bugtraq ID being blank is not suspicious since we are dealing with a null enumeration result.
Question 45 of 65
45. Question
Skillcertpro Training has an open wireless network called “InstructorDemos” for its instructors to use during class, but they do not want any students connecting to this wireless network. The instructors need the “InstructorDemos” network to remain open since some of their IoT devices used during course demonstrations do not support encryption. Based on the requirements provided, which of the following configuration settings should you use to satisfy the instructor’s requirements and prevent students from using the “InstructorDemos” network?
Correct
OBJ-2.5: Since the instructors need to keep the wireless network open, the BEST option is to implement MAC filtering to prevent the students from connecting to the network while still keeping the network open. Since the instructors would most likely use the same devices to connect to the network, it would be relatively easy to implement a MAC filtering based whitelist of devices that are allowed to use the open network and reject any other devices not listed by the instructors (like the student’s laptops or phones). Reducing the signal strength would not solve this issue since students and instructors are in the same classrooms. Using Network Address Translation and Quality of Service will not prevent the students from accessing or using the open network.
Incorrect
OBJ-2.5: Since the instructors need to keep the wireless network open, the BEST option is to implement MAC filtering to prevent the students from connecting to the network while still keeping the network open. Since the instructors would most likely use the same devices to connect to the network, it would be relatively easy to implement a MAC filtering based whitelist of devices that are allowed to use the open network and reject any other devices not listed by the instructors (like the student’s laptops or phones). Reducing the signal strength would not solve this issue since students and instructors are in the same classrooms. Using Network Address Translation and Quality of Service will not prevent the students from accessing or using the open network.
Unattempted
OBJ-2.5: Since the instructors need to keep the wireless network open, the BEST option is to implement MAC filtering to prevent the students from connecting to the network while still keeping the network open. Since the instructors would most likely use the same devices to connect to the network, it would be relatively easy to implement a MAC filtering based whitelist of devices that are allowed to use the open network and reject any other devices not listed by the instructors (like the student’s laptops or phones). Reducing the signal strength would not solve this issue since students and instructors are in the same classrooms. Using Network Address Translation and Quality of Service will not prevent the students from accessing or using the open network.
Question 46 of 65
46. Question
You are analyzing the vulnerability scanning results from a recent web vulnerability scan in preparation for the exploitation phase of an upcoming assessment. A portion of the scan results is shown below.
Which exploit is the website vulnerable to based on the results?
Correct
OBJ-2.3: Information disclosure is any condition that allows the attacker to gain access to protected information. In this case, the server is vulnerable to disclosing information about the version of PHP being used. The phpinfo.php file should not be accessible to remote users over the internet, as it can be used to provide them with valuable information to help plan an attack.
Incorrect
OBJ-2.3: Information disclosure is any condition that allows the attacker to gain access to protected information. In this case, the server is vulnerable to disclosing information about the version of PHP being used. The phpinfo.php file should not be accessible to remote users over the internet, as it can be used to provide them with valuable information to help plan an attack.
Unattempted
OBJ-2.3: Information disclosure is any condition that allows the attacker to gain access to protected information. In this case, the server is vulnerable to disclosing information about the version of PHP being used. The phpinfo.php file should not be accessible to remote users over the internet, as it can be used to provide them with valuable information to help plan an attack.
Question 47 of 65
47. Question
What technique is an attacker using if they review data and publicly available information to gather intelligence about the target organization without scanning or other technical information-gathering activities?
Correct
OBJ-2.1: Passive reconnaissance combines publicly available data from various sources about an organization and does not use active scanning or data gathering methods. Vulnerability scanning is an inspection of the potential points of exploitation on a computer or network to identify security holes. A vulnerability scan is usually conducted to detect and classify system weaknesses in computers, networks, and communications equipment and predict the effectiveness of countermeasures. Patch management is the process that helps acquire, test, and install multiple patches (code changes) on existing applications and software tools on a computer, enabling systems to stay updated on existing patches and determining which patches are the appropriate ones.
Incorrect
OBJ-2.1: Passive reconnaissance combines publicly available data from various sources about an organization and does not use active scanning or data gathering methods. Vulnerability scanning is an inspection of the potential points of exploitation on a computer or network to identify security holes. A vulnerability scan is usually conducted to detect and classify system weaknesses in computers, networks, and communications equipment and predict the effectiveness of countermeasures. Patch management is the process that helps acquire, test, and install multiple patches (code changes) on existing applications and software tools on a computer, enabling systems to stay updated on existing patches and determining which patches are the appropriate ones.
Unattempted
OBJ-2.1: Passive reconnaissance combines publicly available data from various sources about an organization and does not use active scanning or data gathering methods. Vulnerability scanning is an inspection of the potential points of exploitation on a computer or network to identify security holes. A vulnerability scan is usually conducted to detect and classify system weaknesses in computers, networks, and communications equipment and predict the effectiveness of countermeasures. Patch management is the process that helps acquire, test, and install multiple patches (code changes) on existing applications and software tools on a computer, enabling systems to stay updated on existing patches and determining which patches are the appropriate ones.
Question 48 of 65
48. Question
You were interpreting a Nessus vulnerability scan report and identified a vulnerability in the system with a CVSS attack vector rating of A. Based on this information, which of the following statements would be true?
Correct
OBJ-2.3: The attack vector explains what type of access that the attacker must have to a system or network and does not refer to the types of specialized conditions that must exist. In this case, the A rating refers to Adjacent, where the attacker must launch the attack from the same shared physical (such as Bluetooth or Wi-Fi network), logical network (such as a local subnet), or a limited administrative domain (such as a VPN or MPLS). An attack vector of Network (N) would allow the attack to extend beyond these options and conduct remote exploitation of the vulnerability. An attack vector of Local (L) would require the attacker to locally exploit the workstation via the keyboard or over an SSH connection. An attack vector of Physical (P) would require the attacker to physically touch or manipulate the vulnerable component themselves, such as conducting a cold boot attack.
Incorrect
OBJ-2.3: The attack vector explains what type of access that the attacker must have to a system or network and does not refer to the types of specialized conditions that must exist. In this case, the A rating refers to Adjacent, where the attacker must launch the attack from the same shared physical (such as Bluetooth or Wi-Fi network), logical network (such as a local subnet), or a limited administrative domain (such as a VPN or MPLS). An attack vector of Network (N) would allow the attack to extend beyond these options and conduct remote exploitation of the vulnerability. An attack vector of Local (L) would require the attacker to locally exploit the workstation via the keyboard or over an SSH connection. An attack vector of Physical (P) would require the attacker to physically touch or manipulate the vulnerable component themselves, such as conducting a cold boot attack.
Unattempted
OBJ-2.3: The attack vector explains what type of access that the attacker must have to a system or network and does not refer to the types of specialized conditions that must exist. In this case, the A rating refers to Adjacent, where the attacker must launch the attack from the same shared physical (such as Bluetooth or Wi-Fi network), logical network (such as a local subnet), or a limited administrative domain (such as a VPN or MPLS). An attack vector of Network (N) would allow the attack to extend beyond these options and conduct remote exploitation of the vulnerability. An attack vector of Local (L) would require the attacker to locally exploit the workstation via the keyboard or over an SSH connection. An attack vector of Physical (P) would require the attacker to physically touch or manipulate the vulnerable component themselves, such as conducting a cold boot attack.
Question 49 of 65
49. Question
Vulnerability scans must be conducted continuously to meet regulatory compliance requirements for the storage of PHI. During the last vulnerability scan, a cybersecurity analyst received a report of 2,592 possible vulnerabilities and was asked by the Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) for a plan to remediate all the known issues. Which of the following should the analyst do next?
Correct
OBJ-2.3: PHI is an abbreviation for Personal Health Information. When attempting to remediate numerous vulnerabilities, it is crucial to prioritize the vulnerabilities to determine which ones should be remediated first. In this case, there is a regulatory requirement to ensure the security of the PHI data. Therefore, those critical assets to the secure handling or storage of PHI are of the highest risk should be prioritized for remediation first. It is impractical to resolve all 2,592 vulnerabilities at once. Therefore, you should not identify all the false positives and exceptions and then resolve any remaining items since they won’t be prioritized for remediation. You should also not wait to perform additional scanning because a scan is only a snapshot of your current status. If it takes 30 days to remediate all the vulnerabilities and do not scan, new vulnerabilities may have been introduced. Placing all the PHI assets into a sandbox will not work either because you have removed them from the production environment and can no longer serve their critical business functions.
Incorrect
OBJ-2.3: PHI is an abbreviation for Personal Health Information. When attempting to remediate numerous vulnerabilities, it is crucial to prioritize the vulnerabilities to determine which ones should be remediated first. In this case, there is a regulatory requirement to ensure the security of the PHI data. Therefore, those critical assets to the secure handling or storage of PHI are of the highest risk should be prioritized for remediation first. It is impractical to resolve all 2,592 vulnerabilities at once. Therefore, you should not identify all the false positives and exceptions and then resolve any remaining items since they won’t be prioritized for remediation. You should also not wait to perform additional scanning because a scan is only a snapshot of your current status. If it takes 30 days to remediate all the vulnerabilities and do not scan, new vulnerabilities may have been introduced. Placing all the PHI assets into a sandbox will not work either because you have removed them from the production environment and can no longer serve their critical business functions.
Unattempted
OBJ-2.3: PHI is an abbreviation for Personal Health Information. When attempting to remediate numerous vulnerabilities, it is crucial to prioritize the vulnerabilities to determine which ones should be remediated first. In this case, there is a regulatory requirement to ensure the security of the PHI data. Therefore, those critical assets to the secure handling or storage of PHI are of the highest risk should be prioritized for remediation first. It is impractical to resolve all 2,592 vulnerabilities at once. Therefore, you should not identify all the false positives and exceptions and then resolve any remaining items since they won’t be prioritized for remediation. You should also not wait to perform additional scanning because a scan is only a snapshot of your current status. If it takes 30 days to remediate all the vulnerabilities and do not scan, new vulnerabilities may have been introduced. Placing all the PHI assets into a sandbox will not work either because you have removed them from the production environment and can no longer serve their critical business functions.
Question 50 of 65
50. Question
You have been asked to determine if Skillcertpro Training’s web server is vulnerable to a recently discovered attack on an older version of SSH. Which technique should you use to determine the current version of SSH running on their web server?
Correct
OBJ-2.1: Banner grabbing is conducted by actively connecting to the server using telnet or netcat and collecting the web server’s response. This banner usually contains the server’s operating system and the version number of the service (SSH) being run. This is the fastest and easiest way to determine the SSH version being run on this web server. While it is possible to use a vulnerability scanner, protocol analyzer, or to conduct a passive scan to determine the SSH version, these are more time consuming and not fully accurate methods to determine the version being run.
Incorrect
OBJ-2.1: Banner grabbing is conducted by actively connecting to the server using telnet or netcat and collecting the web server’s response. This banner usually contains the server’s operating system and the version number of the service (SSH) being run. This is the fastest and easiest way to determine the SSH version being run on this web server. While it is possible to use a vulnerability scanner, protocol analyzer, or to conduct a passive scan to determine the SSH version, these are more time consuming and not fully accurate methods to determine the version being run.
Unattempted
OBJ-2.1: Banner grabbing is conducted by actively connecting to the server using telnet or netcat and collecting the web server’s response. This banner usually contains the server’s operating system and the version number of the service (SSH) being run. This is the fastest and easiest way to determine the SSH version being run on this web server. While it is possible to use a vulnerability scanner, protocol analyzer, or to conduct a passive scan to determine the SSH version, these are more time consuming and not fully accurate methods to determine the version being run.
Question 51 of 65
51. Question
What type of technique does exploit chaining often implement?
Correct
OBJ-2.4: Connection String Parameter Pollution (CSPP) exploits specifically the semicolon-delimited database connection strings that are constructed dynamically based on the user inputs from web applications. CSPP, if carried out successfully, can be used to steal user identities and hijack web credentials. CSPP is a high-risk attack because of the relative ease with which it can be carried out (low access complexity) and the potential results it can have (high impact). Exploit chaining involves multiple commands and exploits being conducted in a series to fully attack or exploit a given target.
Incorrect
OBJ-2.4: Connection String Parameter Pollution (CSPP) exploits specifically the semicolon-delimited database connection strings that are constructed dynamically based on the user inputs from web applications. CSPP, if carried out successfully, can be used to steal user identities and hijack web credentials. CSPP is a high-risk attack because of the relative ease with which it can be carried out (low access complexity) and the potential results it can have (high impact). Exploit chaining involves multiple commands and exploits being conducted in a series to fully attack or exploit a given target.
Unattempted
OBJ-2.4: Connection String Parameter Pollution (CSPP) exploits specifically the semicolon-delimited database connection strings that are constructed dynamically based on the user inputs from web applications. CSPP, if carried out successfully, can be used to steal user identities and hijack web credentials. CSPP is a high-risk attack because of the relative ease with which it can be carried out (low access complexity) and the potential results it can have (high impact). Exploit chaining involves multiple commands and exploits being conducted in a series to fully attack or exploit a given target.
Question 52 of 65
52. Question
Your network security manager wants a monthly report of the security posture of all the assets on the network (e.g., workstations, servers, routers, switches, firewalls). The report should include any feature of a system or appliance that is missing a security patch, OS update, or other essential security feature and its risk severity. Which solution would work best to find this data?
Correct
OBJ-2.2: A vulnerability scanner is a computer program designed to assess computers, computer systems, networks, or applications for weaknesses. Most vulnerability scanners also create an itemized report of their findings after the scan.
Incorrect
OBJ-2.2: A vulnerability scanner is a computer program designed to assess computers, computer systems, networks, or applications for weaknesses. Most vulnerability scanners also create an itemized report of their findings after the scan.
Unattempted
OBJ-2.2: A vulnerability scanner is a computer program designed to assess computers, computer systems, networks, or applications for weaknesses. Most vulnerability scanners also create an itemized report of their findings after the scan.
Question 53 of 65
53. Question
You have received a laptop from a user who recently left the company. You went to the terminal in the operating system and typed ‘history’ into the prompt and see the following:
-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-
> for i in seq 255; ping -c 1 10.1.0.$i; done
-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-
Which of the following best describes what actions were performed by this line of code?
Correct
OBJ-2.1: This code is performing a ping sweep of the subnet 10.1.0.0/24. The code states that for every number in the sequence from 1 to 255, conduct a ping to 10.1.0.x, where x is the number from 1 to 255. When it completes this sequence, it is to return to the terminal prompt (done). The ping command uses an echo request and then receives an echo reply from the ping’s target. A ping sweep does not use an SYN scan, which would require the use of a tool like nmap or hping.
Incorrect
OBJ-2.1: This code is performing a ping sweep of the subnet 10.1.0.0/24. The code states that for every number in the sequence from 1 to 255, conduct a ping to 10.1.0.x, where x is the number from 1 to 255. When it completes this sequence, it is to return to the terminal prompt (done). The ping command uses an echo request and then receives an echo reply from the ping’s target. A ping sweep does not use an SYN scan, which would require the use of a tool like nmap or hping.
Unattempted
OBJ-2.1: This code is performing a ping sweep of the subnet 10.1.0.0/24. The code states that for every number in the sequence from 1 to 255, conduct a ping to 10.1.0.x, where x is the number from 1 to 255. When it completes this sequence, it is to return to the terminal prompt (done). The ping command uses an echo request and then receives an echo reply from the ping’s target. A ping sweep does not use an SYN scan, which would require the use of a tool like nmap or hping.
Question 54 of 65
54. Question
Which of the following tools can NOT be used to conduct a banner grab from a web server on a remote host?
Correct
OBJ-2.1: FTP cannot be used to conduct a banner grab. A cybersecurity analyst or penetration tester uses a banner grab to gain information about a computer system on a network and the services running on its open ports. Administrators can use this to take inventory of the systems and services on their network. This is commonly done using telnet, wget, or netcat.
Incorrect
OBJ-2.1: FTP cannot be used to conduct a banner grab. A cybersecurity analyst or penetration tester uses a banner grab to gain information about a computer system on a network and the services running on its open ports. Administrators can use this to take inventory of the systems and services on their network. This is commonly done using telnet, wget, or netcat.
Unattempted
OBJ-2.1: FTP cannot be used to conduct a banner grab. A cybersecurity analyst or penetration tester uses a banner grab to gain information about a computer system on a network and the services running on its open ports. Administrators can use this to take inventory of the systems and services on their network. This is commonly done using telnet, wget, or netcat.
Question 55 of 65
55. Question
Due to new regulations, your organization’s CIO has the information security team institute a vulnerability management program. What framework would BEST support this program’s establishment?
Correct
OBJ-2.1: NIST (National Institute of Standards and Technology) produced a useful patch and vulnerability management program framework in its Special Publication (NIST SP 800-40). It would be useful during the program’s establishment and provide a series of guidelines and best practices. SANS is a company specializing in cybersecurity and secure web application development training and sponsors the Global Information Assurance Certification (GIAC). The SDLC is the software development lifecycle. It is a method for dividing programming projects into separate phases. The Open Web Application Security Project (OWASP) is a community effort that provides free access to many secure programming resources. The resources provided include documentation on web app vulnerabilities and mitigation tactics, software tools used to identify and handle threats that target web applications, frameworks for secure development life cycle implementation, frameworks for penetration testing web apps, general secure coding best practices, guidelines for specific web-based languages, and more.
Incorrect
OBJ-2.1: NIST (National Institute of Standards and Technology) produced a useful patch and vulnerability management program framework in its Special Publication (NIST SP 800-40). It would be useful during the program’s establishment and provide a series of guidelines and best practices. SANS is a company specializing in cybersecurity and secure web application development training and sponsors the Global Information Assurance Certification (GIAC). The SDLC is the software development lifecycle. It is a method for dividing programming projects into separate phases. The Open Web Application Security Project (OWASP) is a community effort that provides free access to many secure programming resources. The resources provided include documentation on web app vulnerabilities and mitigation tactics, software tools used to identify and handle threats that target web applications, frameworks for secure development life cycle implementation, frameworks for penetration testing web apps, general secure coding best practices, guidelines for specific web-based languages, and more.
Unattempted
OBJ-2.1: NIST (National Institute of Standards and Technology) produced a useful patch and vulnerability management program framework in its Special Publication (NIST SP 800-40). It would be useful during the program’s establishment and provide a series of guidelines and best practices. SANS is a company specializing in cybersecurity and secure web application development training and sponsors the Global Information Assurance Certification (GIAC). The SDLC is the software development lifecycle. It is a method for dividing programming projects into separate phases. The Open Web Application Security Project (OWASP) is a community effort that provides free access to many secure programming resources. The resources provided include documentation on web app vulnerabilities and mitigation tactics, software tools used to identify and handle threats that target web applications, frameworks for secure development life cycle implementation, frameworks for penetration testing web apps, general secure coding best practices, guidelines for specific web-based languages, and more.
Question 56 of 65
56. Question
You have determined that your client uses several networked devices that rely on an embedded operating system during your reconnaissance. Which of the following methods would MOST likely be the best method for exploiting these?
Correct
OBJ-2.5: Most embedded operating systems use a web interface to access their configurations for setup and installation. Focusing on this web interface and using common web-based exploits is usually one of the best methods of exploiting a device with an embedded OS.
Incorrect
OBJ-2.5: Most embedded operating systems use a web interface to access their configurations for setup and installation. Focusing on this web interface and using common web-based exploits is usually one of the best methods of exploiting a device with an embedded OS.
Unattempted
OBJ-2.5: Most embedded operating systems use a web interface to access their configurations for setup and installation. Focusing on this web interface and using common web-based exploits is usually one of the best methods of exploiting a device with an embedded OS.
Question 57 of 65
57. Question
During your reconnaissance, you have determined that your client’s employees all use Android smartphones that connect back to the corporate network over a secure VPN connection. Which of the following methods would MOST likely be the best method for exploiting these?
Correct
OBJ-2.5: When targeting mobile devices, you must first determine if the company uses iPhones or Android-based devices. If they are using Android-based devices, you can use social engineering to trick a user into installing a malicious APK. As a penetration tester, you can create a malicious APK using msfvenom in the Metasploit framework. The user can install it directly from your website instead of the Google Play store.
Incorrect
OBJ-2.5: When targeting mobile devices, you must first determine if the company uses iPhones or Android-based devices. If they are using Android-based devices, you can use social engineering to trick a user into installing a malicious APK. As a penetration tester, you can create a malicious APK using msfvenom in the Metasploit framework. The user can install it directly from your website instead of the Google Play store.
Unattempted
OBJ-2.5: When targeting mobile devices, you must first determine if the company uses iPhones or Android-based devices. If they are using Android-based devices, you can use social engineering to trick a user into installing a malicious APK. As a penetration tester, you can create a malicious APK using msfvenom in the Metasploit framework. The user can install it directly from your website instead of the Google Play store.
Question 58 of 65
58. Question
What command could be used to list the active services from the Windows command prompt?
Correct
OBJ-2.1: Windows uses the sc query to display information about the running service. It is part of the Service Control command-line tool, known as sc. The sc config command will modify the value of a service’s entries in the registry and the Service Control Manager database. The sc query command will obtain and display information about the specified service, driver, type of service, or driver type. By entering just the sc query, the command will return the information on the active services only. By using the type=running option, only the information on the running service will be displayed. If the command sc query \\servername is used, then the remote server’s active services (\\servername) will be displayed.
Incorrect
OBJ-2.1: Windows uses the sc query to display information about the running service. It is part of the Service Control command-line tool, known as sc. The sc config command will modify the value of a service’s entries in the registry and the Service Control Manager database. The sc query command will obtain and display information about the specified service, driver, type of service, or driver type. By entering just the sc query, the command will return the information on the active services only. By using the type=running option, only the information on the running service will be displayed. If the command sc query \\servername is used, then the remote server’s active services (\\servername) will be displayed.
Unattempted
OBJ-2.1: Windows uses the sc query to display information about the running service. It is part of the Service Control command-line tool, known as sc. The sc config command will modify the value of a service’s entries in the registry and the Service Control Manager database. The sc query command will obtain and display information about the specified service, driver, type of service, or driver type. By entering just the sc query, the command will return the information on the active services only. By using the type=running option, only the information on the running service will be displayed. If the command sc query \\servername is used, then the remote server’s active services (\\servername) will be displayed.
Question 59 of 65
59. Question
You have just conducted an automated vulnerability scan against a static webpage without any user input fields. You have been asked to adjudicate the scanner’s findings in the automated report. Which of the following is MOST likely to be a false positive?
Correct
OBJ-2.3: A command injection is unlikely since this is a static webpage and does not accept any user input. A command injection allows the user to supply malicious input to the web server and then passes that data to a system shell for execution. In this sense, command injection does create new instances of execution and can, therefore, leverage languages that the web app does not directly support.
Incorrect
OBJ-2.3: A command injection is unlikely since this is a static webpage and does not accept any user input. A command injection allows the user to supply malicious input to the web server and then passes that data to a system shell for execution. In this sense, command injection does create new instances of execution and can, therefore, leverage languages that the web app does not directly support.
Unattempted
OBJ-2.3: A command injection is unlikely since this is a static webpage and does not accept any user input. A command injection allows the user to supply malicious input to the web server and then passes that data to a system shell for execution. In this sense, command injection does create new instances of execution and can, therefore, leverage languages that the web app does not directly support.
Question 60 of 65
60. Question
You have been asked to provide some training to Skillcertpro Training’s system administrators about the importance of proper patching of a system before deployment. To demonstrate the effects of deploying a new system without patching it first, you ask the system administrators to provide you with an image of a brand-new server they plan to deploy. How should you deploy the image to demonstrate the vulnerabilities exposed while maintaining the security of the corporate network?
Correct
OBJ-2.2: To ensure your corporate network’s safety, any vulnerable image you deploy should be done within a sandboxed environment. This will ensure that an outside attacker cannot exploit the vulnerabilities but will still allow you to show the vulnerabilities found during a scan to demonstrate how important patching is to the security of the server.
Incorrect
OBJ-2.2: To ensure your corporate network’s safety, any vulnerable image you deploy should be done within a sandboxed environment. This will ensure that an outside attacker cannot exploit the vulnerabilities but will still allow you to show the vulnerabilities found during a scan to demonstrate how important patching is to the security of the server.
Unattempted
OBJ-2.2: To ensure your corporate network’s safety, any vulnerable image you deploy should be done within a sandboxed environment. This will ensure that an outside attacker cannot exploit the vulnerabilities but will still allow you to show the vulnerabilities found during a scan to demonstrate how important patching is to the security of the server.
Question 61 of 65
61. Question
An insurance company has developed a new web application to allow its customers to choose and apply for an insurance plan. You have been asked to help perform a security review of the new web application. You have discovered that the application was developed in ASP and used MSSQL for its backend database. You have been able to locate an application’s search form and introduced the following code in the search input field:
-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-
IMG SRC=vbscript:msgbox(“Vulnerable_to_Attack”);> originalAttribute=”SRC” originalPath=”vbscript:msgbox(“Vulnerable_to_Attack “);>”
-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-
When you click submit on the search form, your web browser returns a pop-up window that displays Vulnerable_to_Attack. Which of the following vulnerabilities did you discover in the web application?
Correct
OBJ-3.4: This is a form of Cross-Site Scripting (XSS). Cross-site scripting (XSS) is a type of computer security vulnerability typically found in web applications. XSS enables attackers to inject client-side scripts into web pages viewed by other users. Attackers may use a cross-site scripting vulnerability to bypass access controls such as the same-origin policy. Cross-site request forgery (CSRF or XSRF) is a malicious exploit of a website where unauthorized commands are transmitted from a user that the web application trusts. There are many ways in which a malicious website can transmit commands, such as specially-crafted image tags, hidden forms, and JavaScript XMLHttpRequests can all work without the user’s interaction or even knowledge. SQL injection is a code injection technique used to attack data-driven applications. Malicious SQL statements are inserted into an entry field for execution, such as dumping the database contents to the attacker. Command injection is an attack in which the goal is to execute arbitrary commands on the host operating system via a vulnerable application. Command injection attacks are possible when an application passes unsafe user-supplied data (forms, cookies, HTTP headers, etc.) to a system shell.
Incorrect
OBJ-3.4: This is a form of Cross-Site Scripting (XSS). Cross-site scripting (XSS) is a type of computer security vulnerability typically found in web applications. XSS enables attackers to inject client-side scripts into web pages viewed by other users. Attackers may use a cross-site scripting vulnerability to bypass access controls such as the same-origin policy. Cross-site request forgery (CSRF or XSRF) is a malicious exploit of a website where unauthorized commands are transmitted from a user that the web application trusts. There are many ways in which a malicious website can transmit commands, such as specially-crafted image tags, hidden forms, and JavaScript XMLHttpRequests can all work without the user’s interaction or even knowledge. SQL injection is a code injection technique used to attack data-driven applications. Malicious SQL statements are inserted into an entry field for execution, such as dumping the database contents to the attacker. Command injection is an attack in which the goal is to execute arbitrary commands on the host operating system via a vulnerable application. Command injection attacks are possible when an application passes unsafe user-supplied data (forms, cookies, HTTP headers, etc.) to a system shell.
Unattempted
OBJ-3.4: This is a form of Cross-Site Scripting (XSS). Cross-site scripting (XSS) is a type of computer security vulnerability typically found in web applications. XSS enables attackers to inject client-side scripts into web pages viewed by other users. Attackers may use a cross-site scripting vulnerability to bypass access controls such as the same-origin policy. Cross-site request forgery (CSRF or XSRF) is a malicious exploit of a website where unauthorized commands are transmitted from a user that the web application trusts. There are many ways in which a malicious website can transmit commands, such as specially-crafted image tags, hidden forms, and JavaScript XMLHttpRequests can all work without the user’s interaction or even knowledge. SQL injection is a code injection technique used to attack data-driven applications. Malicious SQL statements are inserted into an entry field for execution, such as dumping the database contents to the attacker. Command injection is an attack in which the goal is to execute arbitrary commands on the host operating system via a vulnerable application. Command injection attacks are possible when an application passes unsafe user-supplied data (forms, cookies, HTTP headers, etc.) to a system shell.
Question 62 of 65
62. Question
Your service desk has received many complaints from external users that a web application is responding slowly to requests and frequently receives a “connection timed out” error message when they attempt to submit information to the application. Which software development best practice should have been implemented to prevent this from occurring?
Correct
OBJ-3.2: Stress testing is a software testing activity that determines the robustness of software by testing beyond normal operating limits. Stress testing is essential for mission-critical software but can be used with all types of software. Stress testing is an important component of the capacity management process of IT service management. It ensures adequate resources are available to support the end user’s needs when an application goes into a production environment. Regression testing confirms that a recent program or code change has not adversely affected existing features. Input validation is the process of ensuring any user input have undergone cleansing to ensure it is properly formatted, correct, and useful. Fuzzing is an automated software testing technique that involves providing invalid, unexpected, or random data as inputs to a computer program.
Incorrect
OBJ-3.2: Stress testing is a software testing activity that determines the robustness of software by testing beyond normal operating limits. Stress testing is essential for mission-critical software but can be used with all types of software. Stress testing is an important component of the capacity management process of IT service management. It ensures adequate resources are available to support the end user’s needs when an application goes into a production environment. Regression testing confirms that a recent program or code change has not adversely affected existing features. Input validation is the process of ensuring any user input have undergone cleansing to ensure it is properly formatted, correct, and useful. Fuzzing is an automated software testing technique that involves providing invalid, unexpected, or random data as inputs to a computer program.
Unattempted
OBJ-3.2: Stress testing is a software testing activity that determines the robustness of software by testing beyond normal operating limits. Stress testing is essential for mission-critical software but can be used with all types of software. Stress testing is an important component of the capacity management process of IT service management. It ensures adequate resources are available to support the end user’s needs when an application goes into a production environment. Regression testing confirms that a recent program or code change has not adversely affected existing features. Input validation is the process of ensuring any user input have undergone cleansing to ensure it is properly formatted, correct, and useful. Fuzzing is an automated software testing technique that involves providing invalid, unexpected, or random data as inputs to a computer program.
Question 63 of 65
63. Question
You are analyzing the SIEM for your company’s e-commerce server when you notice the following URL in the logs of your SIEM:
-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=- https://www.skillcertprotraining.com/add_to_cart.php?itemId=5“+perItemPrice=”0.00″+quantity=”100″+/>
Correct
OBJ-3.4: This is an example of an XML injection. XML injection manipulates or compromises the logic of an XML application or service. The injection of unintended XML content and/or structures into an XML message can alter an application’s intended logic. XML Injection can cause the insertion of malicious content into resulting messages/documents. In this case, the URL is attempting to modify the server’s XML structure. The original XML structure would be: . By using the URL above, this would be modified to the following: . The result would be that a new line was added in the XML document that could be processed by the server. This line would allow 10 of the product at $0.00 to be added to the shopping cart, while 0 of the product at $50.00 is added to the cart. This defeats the integrity of the e-commerce store’s add to cart functionality through this XML injection. A SQL injection occurs when data input by a user is interpreted as a SQL command rather than as normal data by the backend database. A buffer overflow is an exploit that attempts to write data to a buffer and exceed that buffer’s boundary to overwrite an adjacent memory location. A session hijacking attack consists of exploiting the web session control mechanism, normally managed for a session token. The real key to answering this question is identifying the XML structured code being entered as part of the URL, shown by the bracketed data.
Incorrect
OBJ-3.4: This is an example of an XML injection. XML injection manipulates or compromises the logic of an XML application or service. The injection of unintended XML content and/or structures into an XML message can alter an application’s intended logic. XML Injection can cause the insertion of malicious content into resulting messages/documents. In this case, the URL is attempting to modify the server’s XML structure. The original XML structure would be: . By using the URL above, this would be modified to the following: . The result would be that a new line was added in the XML document that could be processed by the server. This line would allow 10 of the product at $0.00 to be added to the shopping cart, while 0 of the product at $50.00 is added to the cart. This defeats the integrity of the e-commerce store’s add to cart functionality through this XML injection. A SQL injection occurs when data input by a user is interpreted as a SQL command rather than as normal data by the backend database. A buffer overflow is an exploit that attempts to write data to a buffer and exceed that buffer’s boundary to overwrite an adjacent memory location. A session hijacking attack consists of exploiting the web session control mechanism, normally managed for a session token. The real key to answering this question is identifying the XML structured code being entered as part of the URL, shown by the bracketed data.
Unattempted
OBJ-3.4: This is an example of an XML injection. XML injection manipulates or compromises the logic of an XML application or service. The injection of unintended XML content and/or structures into an XML message can alter an application’s intended logic. XML Injection can cause the insertion of malicious content into resulting messages/documents. In this case, the URL is attempting to modify the server’s XML structure. The original XML structure would be: . By using the URL above, this would be modified to the following: . The result would be that a new line was added in the XML document that could be processed by the server. This line would allow 10 of the product at $0.00 to be added to the shopping cart, while 0 of the product at $50.00 is added to the cart. This defeats the integrity of the e-commerce store’s add to cart functionality through this XML injection. A SQL injection occurs when data input by a user is interpreted as a SQL command rather than as normal data by the backend database. A buffer overflow is an exploit that attempts to write data to a buffer and exceed that buffer’s boundary to overwrite an adjacent memory location. A session hijacking attack consists of exploiting the web session control mechanism, normally managed for a session token. The real key to answering this question is identifying the XML structured code being entered as part of the URL, shown by the bracketed data.
Question 64 of 65
64. Question
A security analyst wants to implement a layered defense posture for this network, so he uses multiple antivirus defensive layers, including both an end-user desktop antivirus software and an email gateway scanner. What kind of attack would this approach help to mitigate?
Correct
OBJ-3.1: By utilizing both endpoint protection (desktop antivirus software) and the email gateway scanner, the security analyst works to prevent phishing and other social engineering attacks. Emails are a common attack vector used in social engineering attacks.
Incorrect
OBJ-3.1: By utilizing both endpoint protection (desktop antivirus software) and the email gateway scanner, the security analyst works to prevent phishing and other social engineering attacks. Emails are a common attack vector used in social engineering attacks.
Unattempted
OBJ-3.1: By utilizing both endpoint protection (desktop antivirus software) and the email gateway scanner, the security analyst works to prevent phishing and other social engineering attacks. Emails are a common attack vector used in social engineering attacks.
Question 65 of 65
65. Question
An attacker sends an email out to 100,000 random email addresses. In the email the attacker sent, it claims that “Your Bank of America account is locked out. Please click here to reset your password.” Which of the following attack types is being used?
Correct
OBJ-3.1: Phishing relies on sending out a large volume of email to a broad set of recipients in the hopes of collecting the desired action or information. Spearphishing involves targeting specific individuals using well-crafted emails to gather information from a victim.
Incorrect
OBJ-3.1: Phishing relies on sending out a large volume of email to a broad set of recipients in the hopes of collecting the desired action or information. Spearphishing involves targeting specific individuals using well-crafted emails to gather information from a victim.
Unattempted
OBJ-3.1: Phishing relies on sending out a large volume of email to a broad set of recipients in the hopes of collecting the desired action or information. Spearphishing involves targeting specific individuals using well-crafted emails to gather information from a victim.
X
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